RN exams renal and urinary practice questions set 6

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The correct answer is B because observing skin closely for changes and answering call lights promptly are crucial aspects of bowel retraining. Skin changes can indicate potential issues like incontinence-associated dermatitis. Promptly answering call lights ensures timely assistance with toileting needs, promoting continence. Incorrect answer explanations: A: Offering praise and restricting fluids after dinner are not specific guidelines for bowel retraining. C: Avoiding gloves can compromise infection control, and offering foods not included in the diet order can disrupt bowel retraining efforts. D: Ignoring episodes of incontinence can hinder progress in bowel retraining, and pushing independent perineal care may not address underlying issues causing incontinence.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is C because vancomycin as a one-off 2 grams to CAPD bags is not sufficient for proven gram-positive infection. For CAPD peritonitis, continuous intraperitoneal antibiotics are required, not just a single dose. This is because peritoneal dialysis fluid is continuously present in the peritoneal cavity, necessitating ongoing antibiotic therapy. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Gram stain in only 10-40% of culture-positive bags does not rule out peritonitis. Choice B is incorrect as coagulase-negative staphylococci are the most common organisms isolated in CAPD peritonitis, not Staph aureus. Choice D is incorrect as antibiotics are usually needed parenterally in addition to intraperitoneal administration for severe cases or systemic infections.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is C because vancomycin as a one-off 2 grams to CAPD bags is not sufficient for proven gram-positive infection. For CAPD peritonitis, continuous intraperitoneal antibiotics are required, not just a single dose. This is because peritoneal dialysis fluid is continuously present in the peritoneal cavity, necessitating ongoing antibiotic therapy. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Gram stain in only 10-40% of culture-positive bags does not rule out peritonitis. Choice B is incorrect as coagulase-negative staphylococci are the most common organisms isolated in CAPD peritonitis, not Staph aureus. Choice D is incorrect as antibiotics are usually needed parenterally in addition to intraperitoneal administration for severe cases or systemic infections.

Correct answer:

Step 1: Renal colic is a symptom of possible kidney stones or obstruction, which can lead to severe pain and require immediate medical attention. Step 2: Scant hematuria may be common after a biopsy and does not necessarily indicate an urgent issue. Step 3: Chronic glomerulonephritis in a 64-year-old patient is a chronic condition that may not require immediate physician notification. Step 4: A temperature of 100.2F orally is slightly elevated but not a critical finding that would warrant immediate physician notification. Summary: Renal colic is the correct answer as it indicates a potential urgent issue requiring immediate physician notification. Scant hematuria, chronic glomerulonephritis, and a slightly elevated temperature are not as concerning in this context.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is C: Kussmaul respirations. In diabetic ketoacidosis, the body attempts to compensate for the metabolic acidosis by increasing the respiratory rate and depth, leading to Kussmaul respirations characterized by deep, rapid, and labored breathing. This pattern helps to blow off excess CO2 and decrease the acidity in the blood. Bradypnea (A) is slow breathing, which is not characteristic of the compensatory response in diabetic ketoacidosis. Central neurogenic hyperventilation (B) involves rapid and deep breathing due to neurological issues, not commonly seen in diabetic ketoacidosis. Cheyne-Stokes respirations (D) are characterized by periods of deep breathing followed by periods of apnea, which is not typically associated with diabetic ketoacidosis.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is C: Kussmaul respirations. In diabetic ketoacidosis, the body attempts to compensate for the metabolic acidosis by increasing the respiratory rate and depth, leading to Kussmaul respirations characterized by deep, rapid, and labored breathing. This pattern helps to blow off excess CO2 and decrease the acidity in the blood. Bradypnea (A) is slow breathing, which is not characteristic of the compensatory response in diabetic ketoacidosis. Central neurogenic hyperventilation (B) involves rapid and deep breathing due to neurological issues, not commonly seen in diabetic ketoacidosis. Cheyne-Stokes respirations (D) are characterized by periods of deep breathing followed by periods of apnea, which is not typically associated with diabetic ketoacidosis.

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The correct answer is B because a positive dipstick for leucocyte esterase is not 96% specific for >10 wbc/mm³. Leucocyte esterase can indicate the presence of white blood cells, but it does not quantitatively correlate with a specific wbc count. Therefore, it cannot be used to accurately determine the exact wbc count in the urine sample. A: The sensitivity of dipstick for nitrites being 96% means it is good at detecting nitrites, which are a sign of bacterial infection in the urine. C: A bacterial culture with >10^5 colony-forming units has a high probability of representing infection, typically around 95%. D: Blood cultures are not routinely used for diagnosing UTIs; urine culture is the primary method. Blood cultures are more often used for systemic infections.

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The correct answer is A because active listening helps the nursing assistant understand the resident's feelings and address the root cause of anger effectively. By listening closely, the NA can empathize, validate the resident's emotions, and provide appropriate support. This approach promotes trust and communication, leading to a more positive interaction. Choice B is incorrect because sharing personal problems can be unprofessional and may not effectively address the resident's anger. Choice C is inappropriate as joking may trivialize the resident's emotions and not address the underlying issue. Choice D is not suitable as it does not acknowledge or address the resident's feelings, and suggesting leaving the facility may not be in the resident's best interest.

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The correct answer is D: Tetracyclines. Tetracyclines work by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit of bacteria, inhibiting protein synthesis. They are effective in treating non-gonococcal urethritis caused by Chlamydia and Ureaplasma. However, tetracyclines should be avoided in patients with liver disease due to the potential for hepatotoxicity. Explanation: 1. Daptomycin (A) is a lipopeptide antibiotic that acts by disrupting bacterial cell membrane function, not by binding to ribosomes. 2. Carbapenems (B) are beta-lactam antibiotics that inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis, not protein synthesis via ribosomal binding. 3. Cephalosporins (C) are beta-lactam antibiotics that also inhibit cell wall synthesis and do not target ribosomes like tetracyclines do.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is D: Tetracyclines. Tetracyclines work by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit of bacteria, inhibiting protein synthesis. They are effective in treating non-gonococcal urethritis caused by Chlamydia and Ureaplasma. However, tetracyclines should be avoided in patients with liver disease due to the potential for hepatotoxicity. Explanation: 1. Daptomycin (A) is a lipopeptide antibiotic that acts by disrupting bacterial cell membrane function, not by binding to ribosomes. 2. Carbapenems (B) are beta-lactam antibiotics that inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis, not protein synthesis via ribosomal binding. 3. Cephalosporins (C) are beta-lactam antibiotics that also inhibit cell wall synthesis and do not target ribosomes like tetracyclines do.