RN exams renal and urinary practice questions, set 7
RN exams · renal and urinary
RN exams renal and urinary practice questionsset 7
You use fluids, electrolytes, and kidney cues to decide what to hold, give, or report. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five renal and urinary questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A 54-year-old woman who has just completed menopause is in the clinic today for a yearly physical examination. Which of these statements should the nurse include in patient education? A postmenopausal woman:
A. Is not at any greater risk for heart disease than a younger woman.
B. Should be aware that she is at increased risk for dyspareunia because of decreased vaginal secretions.
C. Has only stopped menstruating; there really are no other significant changes with which she should be concerned.
D. Is likely to have difficulty with sexual pleasure as a result of drastic changes in the female sexual response cycle.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Should be aware that she is at increased risk for dyspareunia because of decreased vaginal secretions.
The correct answer is B. Postmenopausal women are at increased risk for dyspareunia due to decreased vaginal secretions caused by hormonal changes. This can lead to discomfort or pain during sexual intercourse.
Choice A is incorrect because postmenopausal women are actually at a greater risk for heart disease compared to younger women due to hormonal changes and aging.
Choice C is incorrect as menopause involves various hormonal and physical changes that can impact a woman's health, such as bone density loss and increased risk for osteoporosis.
Choice D is incorrect because while women may experience changes in sexual response after menopause, difficulty with sexual pleasure is not a universal outcome and can be managed with proper education and interventions.
Question 2
A 75 year old man is suffering from benign prostatic hypertrophy and is being treated with terazosin. Which of the following adverse reaction would be expected taking this drug?
A. Erectile dysfunction
B. Orthostatic hypotension
C. GI distress
D. Gynecomastia
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Orthostatic hypotension
The correct answer is B: Orthostatic hypotension. Terazosin is an alpha-1 blocker commonly used to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy. It works by relaxing smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck. This relaxation can lead to vasodilation and subsequently cause a drop in blood pressure. Orthostatic hypotension is a common adverse reaction of alpha-1 blockers due to this mechanism. The other choices, A: Erectile dysfunction, C: GI distress, and D: Gynecomastia are not typically associated with terazosin use. Erectile dysfunction can actually be improved with alpha-1 blockers as they relax smooth muscle in the prostate, allowing for easier urination and potentially improved sexual function. GI distress and gynecomastia are not common side effects of terazosin.
Question 3
A 75 year old man is suffering from benign prostatic hypertrophy and is being treated with terazosin. Which of the following adverse reaction would be expected taking this drug?
A. Erectile dysfunction
B. Orthostatic hypotension
C. GI distress
D. Gynecomastia
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Orthostatic hypotension
The correct answer is B: Orthostatic hypotension. Terazosin is an alpha-1 blocker commonly used to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy. It works by relaxing smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck. This relaxation can lead to vasodilation and subsequently cause a drop in blood pressure. Orthostatic hypotension is a common adverse reaction of alpha-1 blockers due to this mechanism. The other choices, A: Erectile dysfunction, C: GI distress, and D: Gynecomastia are not typically associated with terazosin use. Erectile dysfunction can actually be improved with alpha-1 blockers as they relax smooth muscle in the prostate, allowing for easier urination and potentially improved sexual function. GI distress and gynecomastia are not common side effects of terazosin.
Question 4
A 75 year old man is suffering from benign prostatic hypertrophy and is being treated with terazosin. Which of the following adverse reaction would be expected taking this drug?
A. Erectile dysfunction
B. Orthostatic hypotension
C. GI distress
D. Gynecomastia
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Orthostatic hypotension
The correct answer is B: Orthostatic hypotension. Terazosin is an alpha-1 blocker commonly used to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy. It works by relaxing smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck. This relaxation can lead to vasodilation and subsequently cause a drop in blood pressure. Orthostatic hypotension is a common adverse reaction of alpha-1 blockers due to this mechanism. The other choices, A: Erectile dysfunction, C: GI distress, and D: Gynecomastia are not typically associated with terazosin use. Erectile dysfunction can actually be improved with alpha-1 blockers as they relax smooth muscle in the prostate, allowing for easier urination and potentially improved sexual function. GI distress and gynecomastia are not common side effects of terazosin.
Question 5
A 22-year-old woman is being seen at the clinic for problems with vulvar pain, dysuria, and fever. On physical examination, the nurse notices clusters of small, shallow vesicles with surrounding erythema on the labia. Inguinal lymphadenopathy is present. The most likely cause of these lesions is:
A. Pediculosis pubis.
B. Contact dermatitis.
C. HPV.
D. Herpes simplex virus type 2.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Herpes simplex virus type 2.
The correct answer is D: Herpes simplex virus type 2. The presence of small, shallow vesicles with surrounding erythema on the labia, along with symptoms of vulvar pain, dysuria, and fever, are classic signs of genital herpes caused by HSV-2. The inguinal lymphadenopathy further supports the diagnosis. Herpes simplex virus is known for causing painful vesicular lesions in the genital area.
Choice A, Pediculosis pubis, is incorrect as it presents with itching and nits (eggs) attached to the hair shafts, not vesicles. Choice B, Contact dermatitis, typically presents with red, itchy, and inflamed skin due to an allergic reaction. Choice C, HPV, does not typically present with vesicles but rather with warts or abnormal cell changes on the skin or mucous membranes.
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Question 6
Which of the following would be the best response by a nursing assistant when a resident becomes angry?
A. The NA can listen closely to the resident to try to find out what caused the anger.
B. The NA can share some of her personal problems with the resident to distract him.
C. The NA can joke with the resident to make him laugh.
D. The NA can offer suggestions on how the resident can leave the facility.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because active listening helps the nursing assistant understand the resident's feelings and address the root cause of anger effectively. By listening closely, the NA can empathize, validate the resident's emotions, and provide appropriate support. This approach promotes trust and communication, leading to a more positive interaction.
Choice B is incorrect because sharing personal problems can be unprofessional and may not effectively address the resident's anger. Choice C is inappropriate as joking may trivialize the resident's emotions and not address the underlying issue. Choice D is not suitable as it does not acknowledge or address the resident's feelings, and suggesting leaving the facility may not be in the resident's best interest.
To minimize chances of renal calculi recurring, it is important for Mr. Reed to
A. take prophylactic antibiotics on a daily basis
B. increase fluid intake
C. take megadoses of vitamin C daily
D. get adequate rest to reduce stress and enhance resistance
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: increase fluid intake. Adequate hydration helps prevent the formation of kidney stones by diluting the substances in the urine that can lead to stone formation. Increasing fluid intake can also help flush out minerals and toxins from the kidneys.
A: Taking prophylactic antibiotics daily is not recommended for preventing renal calculi as it can lead to antibiotic resistance and potential side effects.
C: Taking megadoses of vitamin C daily can actually increase the risk of kidney stone formation as excess vitamin C can be converted into oxalate, a substance known to contribute to stone formation.
D: While adequate rest and stress reduction are important for overall health, they do not directly prevent the recurrence of renal calculi.
To minimize chances of renal calculi recurring, it is important for Mr. Reed to
A. take prophylactic antibiotics on a daily basis
B. increase fluid intake
C. take megadoses of vitamin C daily
D. get adequate rest to reduce stress and enhance resistance
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: increase fluid intake. Adequate hydration helps prevent the formation of kidney stones by diluting the substances in the urine that can lead to stone formation. Increasing fluid intake can also help flush out minerals and toxins from the kidneys.
A: Taking prophylactic antibiotics daily is not recommended for preventing renal calculi as it can lead to antibiotic resistance and potential side effects.
C: Taking megadoses of vitamin C daily can actually increase the risk of kidney stone formation as excess vitamin C can be converted into oxalate, a substance known to contribute to stone formation.
D: While adequate rest and stress reduction are important for overall health, they do not directly prevent the recurrence of renal calculi.
A 22-year-old woman is being seen at the clinic for problems with vulvar pain, dysuria, and fever. On physical examination, the nurse notices clusters of small, shallow vesicles with surrounding erythema on the labia. Inguinal lymphadenopathy is present. The most likely cause of these lesions is:
A. Pediculosis pubis.
B. Contact dermatitis.
C. HPV.
D. Herpes simplex virus type 2.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Herpes simplex virus type 2. The presence of small, shallow vesicles with surrounding erythema on the labia, along with symptoms of vulvar pain, dysuria, and fever, are classic signs of genital herpes caused by HSV-2. The inguinal lymphadenopathy further supports the diagnosis. Herpes simplex virus is known for causing painful vesicular lesions in the genital area.
Choice A, Pediculosis pubis, is incorrect as it presents with itching and nits (eggs) attached to the hair shafts, not vesicles. Choice B, Contact dermatitis, typically presents with red, itchy, and inflamed skin due to an allergic reaction. Choice C, HPV, does not typically present with vesicles but rather with warts or abnormal cell changes on the skin or mucous membranes.
Combivir is a combination therapy used to treat HIV and AIDS include which * of the following drugs?
A. Lamivudine and stavudine
B. Lamivudine and zidovudine
C. Abacavir and zidovudine
D. Abacavir and stavudine
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Lamivudine and zidovudine. Combivir is a combination therapy that consists of these two drugs. Lamivudine and zidovudine work together to inhibit the replication of the HIV virus. Lamivudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, while zidovudine is a nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor. Both drugs target different stages of the HIV life cycle, making them effective when used in combination.
Choice A (Lamivudine and stavudine) is incorrect because stavudine is not part of the Combivir combination therapy. Choice C (Abacavir and zidovudine) is incorrect because abacavir is not included in Combivir. Choice D (Abacavir and stavudine) is incorrect because stavudine is not part of the Combivir combination therapy.
Combivir is a combination therapy used to treat HIV and AIDS include which * of the following drugs?
A. Lamivudine and stavudine
B. Lamivudine and zidovudine
C. Abacavir and zidovudine
D. Abacavir and stavudine
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Lamivudine and zidovudine. Combivir is a combination therapy that consists of these two drugs. Lamivudine and zidovudine work together to inhibit the replication of the HIV virus. Lamivudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, while zidovudine is a nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor. Both drugs target different stages of the HIV life cycle, making them effective when used in combination.
Choice A (Lamivudine and stavudine) is incorrect because stavudine is not part of the Combivir combination therapy. Choice C (Abacavir and zidovudine) is incorrect because abacavir is not included in Combivir. Choice D (Abacavir and stavudine) is incorrect because stavudine is not part of the Combivir combination therapy.
This class of drug exert its antimicrobial action by binding to 30S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis, is the drug of choice for treating non-gonococcal urethritis caused by Chlamydia and Ureaplasma, but should be avoided in patients with liver disease:
A. Daptomycin
B. Carbapenems
C. Cephalosporins
D. Tetracyclines
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Tetracyclines. Tetracyclines work by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit of bacteria, inhibiting protein synthesis. They are effective in treating non-gonococcal urethritis caused by Chlamydia and Ureaplasma. However, tetracyclines should be avoided in patients with liver disease due to the potential for hepatotoxicity.
Explanation:
1. Daptomycin (A) is a lipopeptide antibiotic that acts by disrupting bacterial cell membrane function, not by binding to ribosomes.
2. Carbapenems (B) are beta-lactam antibiotics that inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis, not protein synthesis via ribosomal binding.
3. Cephalosporins (C) are beta-lactam antibiotics that also inhibit cell wall synthesis and do not target ribosomes like tetracyclines do.
Carol Carson was taught self breast examination (SBE) during her last hospitalization and tells you that she has been doing the examination every month without difficulty. Which statement by Mrs. Carson would indicate to you that she does NOT have a complete understanding of the self breast examination technique?
A. I do the examination every month a few days after my period.
B. I use my fingertips to examine all of the breast tissues.
C. I begin the examination by inspecting my breasts with hands at my side.
D. I especially check the upper, outer quadrants and under my arms.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C. Mrs. Carson's statement indicates a lack of understanding because she mentions beginning the examination by inspecting her breasts with hands at her side. The correct technique for self breast examination (SBE) involves inspecting the breasts visually in front of a mirror with hands on hips or raised above the head. This position allows for better visualization and palpation of the breast tissue. Starting the examination with hands at the sides may result in missing important areas for inspection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they all align with proper SBE techniques such as timing the examination, using fingertips to examine all breast tissues, and focusing on specific areas like the upper, outer quadrants, and underarms.
Carol Carson was taught self breast examination (SBE) during her last hospitalization and tells you that she has been doing the examination every month without difficulty. Which statement by Mrs. Carson would indicate to you that she does NOT have a complete understanding of the self breast examination technique?
A. I do the examination every month a few days after my period.
B. I use my fingertips to examine all of the breast tissues.
C. I begin the examination by inspecting my breasts with hands at my side.
D. I especially check the upper, outer quadrants and under my arms.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C. Mrs. Carson's statement indicates a lack of understanding because she mentions beginning the examination by inspecting her breasts with hands at her side. The correct technique for self breast examination (SBE) involves inspecting the breasts visually in front of a mirror with hands on hips or raised above the head. This position allows for better visualization and palpation of the breast tissue. Starting the examination with hands at the sides may result in missing important areas for inspection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they all align with proper SBE techniques such as timing the examination, using fingertips to examine all breast tissues, and focusing on specific areas like the upper, outer quadrants, and underarms.
Carol Carson was taught self breast examination (SBE) during her last hospitalization and tells you that she has been doing the examination every month without difficulty. Which statement by Mrs. Carson would indicate to you that she does NOT have a complete understanding of the self breast examination technique?
A. I do the examination every month a few days after my period.
B. I use my fingertips to examine all of the breast tissues.
C. I begin the examination by inspecting my breasts with hands at my side.
D. I especially check the upper, outer quadrants and under my arms.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C. Mrs. Carson's statement indicates a lack of understanding because she mentions beginning the examination by inspecting her breasts with hands at her side. The correct technique for self breast examination (SBE) involves inspecting the breasts visually in front of a mirror with hands on hips or raised above the head. This position allows for better visualization and palpation of the breast tissue. Starting the examination with hands at the sides may result in missing important areas for inspection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they all align with proper SBE techniques such as timing the examination, using fingertips to examine all breast tissues, and focusing on specific areas like the upper, outer quadrants, and underarms.
RN exams renal and urinary practice questions, set 7 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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