Nursier
Register
Log in Register Register

RN exams renal and urinary practice questions, set 5

RN exams · renal and urinary

RN exams renal and urinary practice questions set 5

You use fluids, electrolytes, and kidney cues to decide what to hold, give, or report. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.

Five renal and urinary questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

A patient with suprapubic pain and symptoms of urinary frequency and urgency has two negative urine cultures. What is one assessment finding that would indicate interstitial cystitis?

  1. A. Residual urine greater than 200 mL
  2. B. A large, atonic bladder on urodynamic testing
  3. C. A voiding pattern that indicates psychogenic urinary retention
  4. D. Pain with bladder filling that is transiently relieved by urination
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Pain with bladder filling that is transiently relieved by urination

The correct answer is D. Pain with bladder filling that is transiently relieved by urination is a classic symptom of interstitial cystitis. This pattern of pain is due to inflammation of the bladder lining, which worsens as the bladder fills with urine and improves temporarily after urination. This finding is specific to interstitial cystitis and not typically seen in other conditions. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: A: Residual urine greater than 200 mL is more indicative of bladder outlet obstruction or neurogenic bladder dysfunction, not specifically interstitial cystitis. B: A large, atonic bladder on urodynamic testing is suggestive of neurogenic bladder or bladder outlet obstruction, not interstitial cystitis. C: A voiding pattern indicating psychogenic urinary retention is more likely related to psychological factors affecting bladder function, not interstitial cystitis.

Question 2

The penicillin G preparation with the longest duration of action is:

  1. A. Benzathine penicillin
  2. B. Sodium penicillin
  3. C. Potassium penicillin
  4. D. Procaine penicillin
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Benzathine penicillin

The correct answer is A: Benzathine penicillin. Benzathine penicillin has the longest duration of action among the choices because it is formulated as a salt that releases the active drug slowly over an extended period. The benzathine salt forms a depot at the injection site, leading to a sustained release of penicillin into the bloodstream. This results in a prolonged therapeutic effect and less frequent dosing compared to other penicillin preparations. Summary: - Choice B: Sodium penicillin has a shorter duration of action as it gets rapidly absorbed and eliminated from the body. - Choice C: Potassium penicillin is not a standard form of penicillin and does not exist as a distinct preparation. - Choice D: Procaine penicillin has an intermediate duration of action compared to benzathine penicillin due to the addition of procaine for local anesthesia, but it is not as long-acting.

Question 3

Your adult patient is experiencing symptomatic bradycardia with a heart rate of 40 bpm. Once on the monitor, it reveals the patient has a complete third-degree atrioventricular block and is found to be hypotensive as well. Which of the following medications should be avoided, if possible?

  1. A. Epinephrine
  2. B. Dopamine
  3. C. Dobutamine
  4. D. Atropine
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Atropine

The correct answer is D: Atropine. In third-degree AV block, the electrical signals from the atria to the ventricles are completely blocked. Atropine works by blocking the parasympathetic nervous system, which can further decrease the heart rate in a patient with bradycardia. In this scenario, avoiding Atropine is crucial to prevent worsening bradycardia. Epinephrine (A) and Dopamine (B) are sympathomimetic agents that can help increase heart rate and blood pressure, making them suitable choices in this situation. Dobutamine (C) is a positive inotrope that can increase heart contractility and may be beneficial in improving cardiac output in a hypotensive patient. In summary, Atropine should be avoided in a patient with third-degree AV block and symptomatic bradycardia to prevent further decreasing the heart rate, while the other options can be considered to help improve hem

Question 4

Which of the following drug which directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase * without the need for intracellular activation by phosphorylation:

  1. A. Nelnavir
  2. B. Nevirapine
  3. C. Stavudine
  4. D. Didanosine
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Nevirapine

The correct answer is B: Nevirapine. Nevirapine is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI) that directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase without needing intracellular activation. It binds directly to the enzyme's active site, preventing the conversion of viral RNA to DNA. Rationale: 1. Nelnavir (A) is a protease inhibitor that works by blocking the protease enzyme needed for viral replication, not reverse transcriptase inhibition. 2. Stavudine (C) and Didanosine (D) are nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) that require intracellular phosphorylation to become active, unlike Nevirapine. In summary, Nevirapine is the correct answer as it directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase without needing intracellular activation, distinguishing it from the other choices which belong to different drug classes or require intracellular phosphorylation.

Question 5

When the nurse is performing a testicular examination on a 25-year-old man, which finding is considered normal?

  1. A. Nontender subcutaneous plaques
  2. B. Scrotal area that is dry, scaly, and nodular
  3. C. Testes that feel oval and movable and are slightly sensitive to compression
  4. D. Single, hard, circumscribed, movaNblUe RmSaIsNsG, lTeBss. CthOaMn 1 cm under the surface of the testes
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Testes that feel oval and movable and are slightly sensitive to compression

The correct answer is C because testes that feel oval, movable, and slightly sensitive to compression are considered normal during a testicular examination in a 25-year-old man. This finding indicates normal testicular anatomy and function. Rationale: 1. Oval shape: Normal testes are typically oval in shape. 2. Movable: Normal testes should be able to move slightly within the scrotum. 3. Sensitive to compression: Slight sensitivity to compression is normal due to the presence of nerves and blood vessels in the testes. Summary of other choices: A: Nontender subcutaneous plaques - Not normal; could indicate conditions like Peyronie's disease. B: Scrotal area that is dry, scaly, and nodular - Not normal; could suggest dermatological conditions or infections. D: Single, hard, circumscribed, movable mass 1 cm under the surface of the testes - Not normal; could be indicative of a test

Keep going past these 15 questions

Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.

Start studying See pricing

Ten more RN exams renal and urinary questions

Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.

Question 6

Glomerular filtrate is produced as a result of

  1. A. tubule secretion
  2. B. facilitated diffusion
  3. C. blood colloid osmotic pressure
  4. D. blood hydrostatic pressure
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 7

A patient is taking sildenafil is diagnosed to have effort angina. Which of the following antianginal drug should be avoided?

  1. A. Amlodipine
  2. B. Diltiazem
  3. C. Nitroglycerin
  4. D. Metoprolol
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 8

Your adult patient is experiencing symptomatic bradycardia with a heart rate of 40 bpm. Once on the monitor, it reveals the patient has a complete third-degree atrioventricular block and is found to be hypotensive as well. Which of the following medications should be avoided, if possible?

  1. A. Epinephrine
  2. B. Dopamine
  3. C. Dobutamine
  4. D. Atropine
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 9

A patient is taking sildenafil is diagnosed to have effort angina. Which of the following antianginal drug should be avoided?

  1. A. Amlodipine
  2. B. Diltiazem
  3. C. Nitroglycerin
  4. D. Metoprolol
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 10

Which of the following drug which directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase * without the need for intracellular activation by phosphorylation:

  1. A. Nelnavir
  2. B. Nevirapine
  3. C. Stavudine
  4. D. Didanosine
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 11

A patient is taking sildenafil is diagnosed to have effort angina. Which of the following antianginal drug should be avoided?

  1. A. Amlodipine
  2. B. Diltiazem
  3. C. Nitroglycerin
  4. D. Metoprolol
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 12

Which statement best describes Zidovudine: *

  1. A. Zidovudine in combination with other antiretrovirals is an alternative initial treatment for HIV infection.
  2. B. Zidovudine is also used to prevent transmission of HIV from the mother to her
  3. C. Zidovudine is converted by cellular enzymes to an active form, zidovudine diphosphate, which prevents viral DNA from replicating.
  4. D. Peripheral neuropathy is a specic adverse reaction to Zidovudine
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 13

Which statement best describes Zidovudine:

  1. A. Zidovudine in combination with other antiretrovirals is an alternative initial treatment for HIV infection
  2. B. Zidovudine is also used to prevent transmission of HIV from the mother to her fetus and to treat AIDS-related dementia
  3. C. Peripheral neuropathy is a specific adverse reaction to Zidovudine
  4. D. Zidovudine is converted by cellular enzymes to an active form
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 14

When the nurse is interviewing a preadolescent girl, which opening question would be least threatening?

  1. A. Do you have any questions about growing up?
  2. B. What has your mother told you about growing up?
  3. C. When did you notice that your body was changing?
  4. D. I remember being very scared when I got my period. How do you think you'll feel?
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 15

Which statement best describes Zidovudine:

  1. A. Zidovudine in combination with other antiretrovirals is an alternative initial treatment for HIV infection
  2. B. Zidovudine is also used to prevent transmission of HIV from the mother to her fetus and to treat AIDS-related dementia
  3. C. Peripheral neuropathy is a specific adverse reaction to Zidovudine
  4. D. Zidovudine is converted by cellular enzymes to an active form
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

About these RN exams renal and urinary questions

RN exams renal and urinary practice questions, set 5 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the RN exams exam guide.

The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

Keep going past these 15 questions

Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.

Start studying See pricing