RN exams renal and urinary practice questions, set 2
RN exams · renal and urinary
RN exams renal and urinary practice questionsset 2
You use fluids, electrolytes, and kidney cues to decide what to hold, give, or report. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five renal and urinary questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
When the nurse is performing a genital examination on a male patient, which action is correct?
A. Auscultating for the presence of a bruit over the scrotum
B. Palpating for the vertical chain of lymph nodes along the groin, inferior to the inguinal ligament
C. Palpating the inguinal canal only if a bulge is present in the inguinal region during inspection
D. Having the patient shift his weight onto the left (unexamine
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Palpating for the vertical chain of lymph nodes along the groin, inferior to the inguinal ligament
The correct answer is B: Palpating for the vertical chain of lymph nodes along the groin, inferior to the inguinal ligament. This is the correct action during a male genital examination as it helps assess for any abnormalities or signs of infection in the lymphatic system. Palpating the lymph nodes allows the nurse to identify any swelling, tenderness, or enlargement which could indicate underlying health issues. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Auscultating for a bruit over the scrotum is not a standard practice during a genital examination and is not relevant to assessing male genital health.
C: Palpating the inguinal canal only if a bulge is present is incorrect as palpating the inguinal canal should be done regardless of the presence of a bulge to check for hernias.
D: Having the patient shift his weight is not a standard procedure during a genital examination and is not relevant to assessing male genital health.
Question 2
The main reason for the use of combination therapy in the drug treatment of * Tuberculosis is:
A. Reduce the incidence of side effects
B. Delay or prevent the emergence of resistance
C. Synergistically increase antimycobacterial activity
D. Provide prophylaxis against other bacterial infections
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Delay or prevent the emergence of resistance
The main reason for using combination therapy in tuberculosis treatment is to delay or prevent the emergence of resistance. By using multiple drugs that target different aspects of the bacteria's life cycle, it becomes harder for the bacteria to develop resistance to all drugs simultaneously. This helps to ensure that the treatment remains effective in the long term.
Explanation for other choices:
A: While combination therapy can sometimes help reduce side effects by using lower doses of each drug, the primary reason for using it in tuberculosis treatment is to prevent resistance, not side effects.
C: While combination therapy can increase antimycobacterial activity, the main goal is to prevent resistance, not to enhance the drugs' effects.
D: Providing prophylaxis against other bacterial infections is not the main reason for using combination therapy in tuberculosis treatment; the focus is on preventing resistance.
Question 3
The main reason for the use of combination therapy in the drug treatment of * Tuberculosis is:
A. Reduce the incidence of side effects
B. Delay or prevent the emergence of resistance
C. Synergistically increase antimycobacterial activity
D. Provide prophylaxis against other bacterial infections
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Delay or prevent the emergence of resistance
The main reason for using combination therapy in tuberculosis treatment is to delay or prevent the emergence of resistance. By using multiple drugs that target different aspects of the bacteria's life cycle, it becomes harder for the bacteria to develop resistance to all drugs simultaneously. This helps to ensure that the treatment remains effective in the long term.
Explanation for other choices:
A: While combination therapy can sometimes help reduce side effects by using lower doses of each drug, the primary reason for using it in tuberculosis treatment is to prevent resistance, not side effects.
C: While combination therapy can increase antimycobacterial activity, the main goal is to prevent resistance, not to enhance the drugs' effects.
D: Providing prophylaxis against other bacterial infections is not the main reason for using combination therapy in tuberculosis treatment; the focus is on preventing resistance.
Question 4
A 25 year old patient is diagnosed with genital herpes simplex virus infection. Which of the following drug would be most appropriate to prescribe in treating this patient’s illness?
A. Zanamivir
B. Lamivudine
C. Valacyclovir
D. Cidofovir
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Valacyclovir
The correct answer is C: Valacyclovir. Valacyclovir is an antiviral medication commonly used to treat herpes simplex virus infections. It is a prodrug of acyclovir, which inhibits viral replication by targeting the viral DNA polymerase enzyme. Valacyclovir is effective in reducing the severity and duration of genital herpes outbreaks.
A: Zanamivir is an antiviral medication used to treat and prevent influenza virus infections, not herpes simplex virus infections.
B: Lamivudine is an antiretroviral medication used to treat HIV and hepatitis B infections, not herpes simplex virus infections.
D: Cidofovir is an antiviral medication used to treat cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections, not herpes simplex virus infections.
In summary, Valacyclovir is the most appropriate choice for treating genital herpes simplex virus infection due to its effectiveness in inhibiting viral replication and reducing the severity of outbreaks.
Question 5
What surgical treatment options are available for the treatment of calculi that are large or complicated by obstruction, ongoing UTI, kidney damage, or constant bleeding?
A. Describe the treatment options for renal cancer.
B. What high priority nursing diagnoses and interventions would you identify for a client with chronic glomerulonephritis?
C. What are the options for vascular access with hemodialysis?
D. Discard the test and ask the client to recollect urine afresh.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Discard the test and ask the client to recollect urine afresh.
Rationale for Correct Answer (D):
1. Large or complicated calculi can lead to serious complications like kidney damage or constant bleeding.
2. Asking the client to recollect urine afresh allows for accurate testing to guide appropriate treatment.
3. Surgical treatments may be necessary but are not the immediate priority in this scenario.
4. Urgent intervention is needed to address the complications associated with the calculi.
5. Proper diagnosis and management of the underlying issues are crucial before considering surgical options.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Describing treatment options for renal cancer is irrelevant to the question about calculi management.
B: High priority nursing diagnoses for chronic glomerulonephritis do not address the immediate issue of large or complicated calculi.
C: Options for vascular access with hemodialysis are unrelated to the surgical treatment of calculi complications.
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Question 6
What is one important step that the nursing assistant should take when collecting a sputum specimen?
A. Have the resident eat dinner prior to the sputum collection
B. Ask the resident to rinse with mouthwash before the collection
C. Have the resident rinse mouth with water before the collection
D. Collect the specimen at night just before the resident goes to bed
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Have the resident rinse mouth with water before the collection. This step helps to ensure that the sputum sample collected is not contaminated with food particles or debris from the mouth, providing a more accurate representation of the respiratory secretions. Rinsing with water helps to clear the mouth and throat of any potential contaminants, making the collection process more effective.
Explanation for other choices:
A: Having the resident eat dinner prior to the sputum collection can introduce food particles into the sample, leading to contamination and inaccurate results.
B: Asking the resident to rinse with mouthwash before the collection can introduce chemicals that may interfere with the accuracy of the test results.
D: Collecting the specimen at night just before the resident goes to bed does not address the need to clear the mouth of potential contaminants before the collection.
Glomerulonephritis is characterized by glomerular damage caused by
A. growth of microorganisms in the glomeruli.
B. release of bacterial substances toxic to the glomeruli.
C. accumulation of immune complexes in the glomeruli.
D. hemolysis of red blood cells circulating in the glomeruli.
Correct answer:
Rationale for Choice C:
1. Glomerulonephritis is an immune-mediated condition where the accumulation of immune complexes in the glomeruli triggers inflammation and damages the kidney.
2. Immune complexes can form due to various reasons like infections or autoimmune disorders, leading to glomerular injury.
3. This immune complex deposition activates the complement system and attracts inflammatory cells, causing further damage to the glomeruli.
Summary of Other Choices:
A. Growth of microorganisms in the glomeruli is not a characteristic feature of glomerulonephritis, as it is primarily an immune-mediated condition.
B. The release of bacterial substances toxic to the glomeruli is not the primary mechanism of injury in glomerulonephritis.
D. Hemolysis of red blood cells circulating in the glomeruli is not a direct cause of glomerulonephritis; it is more characteristic of conditions like hemolytic uremic syndrome.
The main reason for the use of combination therapy in the drug treatment of * Tuberculosis is:
A. Reduce the incidence of side effects
B. Delay or prevent the emergence of resistance
C. Synergistically increase antimycobacterial activity
D. Provide prophylaxis against other bacterial infections
Correct answer:
The main reason for using combination therapy in tuberculosis treatment is to delay or prevent the emergence of resistance. By using multiple drugs that target different aspects of the bacteria's life cycle, it becomes harder for the bacteria to develop resistance to all drugs simultaneously. This helps to ensure that the treatment remains effective in the long term.
Explanation for other choices:
A: While combination therapy can sometimes help reduce side effects by using lower doses of each drug, the primary reason for using it in tuberculosis treatment is to prevent resistance, not side effects.
C: While combination therapy can increase antimycobacterial activity, the main goal is to prevent resistance, not to enhance the drugs' effects.
D: Providing prophylaxis against other bacterial infections is not the main reason for using combination therapy in tuberculosis treatment; the focus is on preventing resistance.
A 25 year old patient is diagnosed with genital herpes simplex virus infection. Which of the following drug would be most appropriate to prescribe in treating this patient’s illness?
A. Zanamivir
B. Lamivudine
C. Valacyclovir
D. Cidofovir
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Valacyclovir. Valacyclovir is an antiviral medication commonly used to treat herpes simplex virus infections. It is a prodrug of acyclovir, which inhibits viral replication by targeting the viral DNA polymerase enzyme. Valacyclovir is effective in reducing the severity and duration of genital herpes outbreaks.
A: Zanamivir is an antiviral medication used to treat and prevent influenza virus infections, not herpes simplex virus infections.
B: Lamivudine is an antiretroviral medication used to treat HIV and hepatitis B infections, not herpes simplex virus infections.
D: Cidofovir is an antiviral medication used to treat cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections, not herpes simplex virus infections.
In summary, Valacyclovir is the most appropriate choice for treating genital herpes simplex virus infection due to its effectiveness in inhibiting viral replication and reducing the severity of outbreaks.
During a health history, a 22-year-old woman asks, 'Can I get that vaccine for human papilloma virus (HPV)? I have genital warts and I'd like them to go away! What is the nurse's best response?'
A. The HPV vaccine is for girls and women ages 9 to 26 years, so we can start that today.
B. This vaccine is only for girls who have not yet started to become sexually active.
C. Let's check with the physician to see if you are a candidate for this vaccine.
D. The vaccine cannot protect you if you already have an HPV infection.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because the HPV vaccine is prophylactic and does not treat existing HPV infections. The primary purpose of the vaccine is to prevent future HPV infections, not to cure current ones. Therefore, administering the vaccine to someone who already has an HPV infection would not provide any benefit in treating the existing infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the fact that the vaccine cannot treat an existing HPV infection. Choice A is incorrect because the age range for the HPV vaccine includes individuals up to 26 years old, but it does not address the issue of existing infection. Choice B is incorrect because the vaccine is recommended for both sexually active and non-sexually active individuals to prevent future infections. Choice C is incorrect because checking with the physician does not change the fact that the vaccine cannot treat an existing HPV infection.
During a health history, a 22-year-old woman asks, 'Can I get that vaccine for human papilloma virus (HPV)? I have genital warts and I'd like them to go away! What is the nurse's best response?'
A. The HPV vaccine is for girls and women ages 9 to 26 years, so we can start that today.
B. This vaccine is only for girls who have not yet started to become sexually active.
C. Let's check with the physician to see if you are a candidate for this vaccine.
D. The vaccine cannot protect you if you already have an HPV infection.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because the HPV vaccine is prophylactic and does not treat existing HPV infections. The primary purpose of the vaccine is to prevent future HPV infections, not to cure current ones. Therefore, administering the vaccine to someone who already has an HPV infection would not provide any benefit in treating the existing infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the fact that the vaccine cannot treat an existing HPV infection. Choice A is incorrect because the age range for the HPV vaccine includes individuals up to 26 years old, but it does not address the issue of existing infection. Choice B is incorrect because the vaccine is recommended for both sexually active and non-sexually active individuals to prevent future infections. Choice C is incorrect because checking with the physician does not change the fact that the vaccine cannot treat an existing HPV infection.
What is one important step that the nursing assistant should take when collecting a sputum specimen?
A. Have the resident eat dinner prior to the sputum collection
B. Ask the resident to rinse with mouthwash before the collection
C. Have the resident rinse mouth with water before the collection
D. Collect the specimen at night just before the resident goes to bed
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Have the resident rinse mouth with water before the collection. This step helps to ensure that the sputum sample collected is not contaminated with food particles or debris from the mouth, providing a more accurate representation of the respiratory secretions. Rinsing with water helps to clear the mouth and throat of any potential contaminants, making the collection process more effective.
Explanation for other choices:
A: Having the resident eat dinner prior to the sputum collection can introduce food particles into the sample, leading to contamination and inaccurate results.
B: Asking the resident to rinse with mouthwash before the collection can introduce chemicals that may interfere with the accuracy of the test results.
D: Collecting the specimen at night just before the resident goes to bed does not address the need to clear the mouth of potential contaminants before the collection.
What surgical treatment options are available for the treatment of calculi that are large or complicated by obstruction, ongoing UTI, kidney damage, or constant bleeding?
A. Describe the treatment options for renal cancer.
B. What high priority nursing diagnoses and interventions would you identify for a client with chronic glomerulonephritis?
C. What are the options for vascular access with hemodialysis?
D. Discard the test and ask the client to recollect urine afresh.
Correct answer:
Rationale for Correct Answer (D):
1. Large or complicated calculi can lead to serious complications like kidney damage or constant bleeding.
2. Asking the client to recollect urine afresh allows for accurate testing to guide appropriate treatment.
3. Surgical treatments may be necessary but are not the immediate priority in this scenario.
4. Urgent intervention is needed to address the complications associated with the calculi.
5. Proper diagnosis and management of the underlying issues are crucial before considering surgical options.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Describing treatment options for renal cancer is irrelevant to the question about calculi management.
B: High priority nursing diagnoses for chronic glomerulonephritis do not address the immediate issue of large or complicated calculi.
C: Options for vascular access with hemodialysis are unrelated to the surgical treatment of calculi complications.
Glomerulonephritis is characterized by glomerular damage caused by
A. growth of microorganisms in the glomeruli.
B. release of bacterial substances toxic to the glomeruli.
C. accumulation of immune complexes in the glomeruli.
D. hemolysis of red blood cells circulating in the glomeruli.
Correct answer:
Rationale for Choice C:
1. Glomerulonephritis is an immune-mediated condition where the accumulation of immune complexes in the glomeruli triggers inflammation and damages the kidney.
2. Immune complexes can form due to various reasons like infections or autoimmune disorders, leading to glomerular injury.
3. This immune complex deposition activates the complement system and attracts inflammatory cells, causing further damage to the glomeruli.
Summary of Other Choices:
A. Growth of microorganisms in the glomeruli is not a characteristic feature of glomerulonephritis, as it is primarily an immune-mediated condition.
B. The release of bacterial substances toxic to the glomeruli is not the primary mechanism of injury in glomerulonephritis.
D. Hemolysis of red blood cells circulating in the glomeruli is not a direct cause of glomerulonephritis; it is more characteristic of conditions like hemolytic uremic syndrome.
A patient has been experiencing vaginal bleeding and cramping, which the nurse suspects could be an early sign of a miscarriage. Which of the following should the nurse assess for during this examination?
A. Hyperthyroidism.
B. High blood pressure.
C. Weight loss and fatigue.
D. Changes in breast size or tenderness.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Weight loss and fatigue. In the context of vaginal bleeding and cramping, weight loss and fatigue are concerning signs that may indicate a potential miscarriage. Weight loss could be due to decreased appetite or nutritional deficiencies associated with the stress of a miscarriage. Fatigue may result from hormonal changes and emotional distress. Assessing for weight loss and fatigue helps the nurse monitor the patient's overall well-being and provide appropriate support.
Choice A (Hyperthyroidism) is incorrect as it is not directly related to the symptoms of vaginal bleeding and cramping suggestive of a possible miscarriage.
Choice B (High blood pressure) is also incorrect as it is not typically associated with early signs of a miscarriage.
Choice D (Changes in breast size or tenderness) is incorrect as these symptoms are more commonly related to pregnancy rather than miscarriage.
RN exams renal and urinary practice questions, set 2 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the RN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
