RN exams renal and urinary practice questions, set 3
RN exams · renal and urinary
RN exams renal and urinary practice questionsset 3
You use fluids, electrolytes, and kidney cues to decide what to hold, give, or report. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five renal and urinary questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A patient has been experiencing vaginal bleeding and cramping, which the nurse suspects could be an early sign of a miscarriage. Which of the following should the nurse assess for during this examination?
A. Hyperthyroidism.
B. High blood pressure.
C. Weight loss and fatigue.
D. Changes in breast size or tenderness.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Weight loss and fatigue.
The correct answer is C: Weight loss and fatigue. In the context of vaginal bleeding and cramping, weight loss and fatigue are concerning signs that may indicate a potential miscarriage. Weight loss could be due to decreased appetite or nutritional deficiencies associated with the stress of a miscarriage. Fatigue may result from hormonal changes and emotional distress. Assessing for weight loss and fatigue helps the nurse monitor the patient's overall well-being and provide appropriate support.
Choice A (Hyperthyroidism) is incorrect as it is not directly related to the symptoms of vaginal bleeding and cramping suggestive of a possible miscarriage.
Choice B (High blood pressure) is also incorrect as it is not typically associated with early signs of a miscarriage.
Choice D (Changes in breast size or tenderness) is incorrect as these symptoms are more commonly related to pregnancy rather than miscarriage.
Question 2
The nurse is aware of which statement to be true regarding the incidence of testicular cancer?
A. Testicular cancer is the most common cancer in men aged 30 to 50 years.
B. The early symptoms of testicular cancer are pain and induration.
C. Men with a history of cryptorchidism are at the greatest risk for the development of testicular cancer.
D. The cure rate for testicular cancer is low.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Men with a history of cryptorchidism are at the greatest risk for the development of testicular cancer.
The correct answer is C: Men with a history of cryptorchidism are at the greatest risk for the development of testicular cancer. This is because cryptorchidism, which is the condition of undescended testicles, is a known risk factor for testicular cancer. When the testicles do not descend properly, there is an increased likelihood of cancer development. This statement is true as individuals with cryptorchidism have a higher risk of testicular cancer compared to those without this condition.
Other choices are incorrect:
A: Testicular cancer is not the most common cancer in men aged 30 to 50 years. Prostate cancer is more common in this age group.
B: The early symptoms of testicular cancer are not pain and induration. Common symptoms include painless testicular swelling or a lump.
D: The cure rate for testicular cancer is actually high, especially when detected early. This statement is incorrect.
Question 3
Which of the following drug/(s) that is /are used to treat chronic hepatitis B? *
A. Lamivudine
B. Human interferon α
C. Amantadine
D. (
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Lamivudine
Step-by-step rationale for why A (Lamivudine) is correct:
1. Lamivudine is a nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor used to treat chronic hepatitis B.
2. It inhibits the replication of the hepatitis B virus, reducing viral load and liver damage.
3. Clinical studies have shown its efficacy in improving liver function and reducing the risk of cirrhosis.
4. Lamivudine is recommended as a first-line treatment option by major medical guidelines.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
B. Human interferon α: While interferon therapy was previously used, it is no longer recommended as a first-line treatment due to its side effects and lower efficacy compared to newer drugs.
C. Amantadine: Amantadine is not recommended for the treatment of chronic hepatitis B as it is not effective against the hepatitis B virus.
D. (: This is not a valid drug option for treating chronic hepatitis B.
Question 4
The nurse is aware of which statement to be true regarding the incidence of testicular cancer?
A. Testicular cancer is the most common cancer in men aged 30 to 50 years.
B. The early symptoms of testicular cancer are pain and induration.
C. Men with a history of cryptorchidism are at the greatest risk for the development of testicular cancer.
D. The cure rate for testicular cancer is low.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Men with a history of cryptorchidism are at the greatest risk for the development of testicular cancer.
The correct answer is C: Men with a history of cryptorchidism are at the greatest risk for the development of testicular cancer. This is because cryptorchidism, which is the condition of undescended testicles, is a known risk factor for testicular cancer. When the testicles do not descend properly, there is an increased likelihood of cancer development. This statement is true as individuals with cryptorchidism have a higher risk of testicular cancer compared to those without this condition.
Other choices are incorrect:
A: Testicular cancer is not the most common cancer in men aged 30 to 50 years. Prostate cancer is more common in this age group.
B: The early symptoms of testicular cancer are not pain and induration. Common symptoms include painless testicular swelling or a lump.
D: The cure rate for testicular cancer is actually high, especially when detected early. This statement is incorrect.
Question 5
Intravenous Plain NSS infusion is the treatment of choice for the following complications of furosemide therapy:
A. Hypokalemia
B. Severe dehydration
C. Dilutional hyponatremia
D. None of the above
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Severe dehydration
The correct answer is B: Severe dehydration. Intravenous Plain NSS (Normal Saline Solution) infusion is the treatment of choice for severe dehydration due to its ability to rapidly restore fluid and electrolyte balance. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to excessive fluid loss and dehydration. Plain NSS helps replenish lost fluids and electrolytes quickly.
Rationale for other choices:
A: Hypokalemia - Furosemide can cause hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion, but treatment involves potassium supplementation or potassium-sparing diuretics, not NSS infusion.
C: Dilutional hyponatremia - Furosemide can lead to dilutional hyponatremia by causing excessive water retention, but treatment focuses on fluid restriction and correcting underlying causes, not NSS infusion.
D: None of the above - This is incorrect as NSS infusion is indicated for severe dehydration in furosemide therapy.
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Question 6
Intravenous Plain NSS infusion is the treatment of choice for the following complications of furosemide therapy:
A. Hypokalemia
B. Severe dehydration
C. Dilutional hyponatremia
D. None of the above
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Severe dehydration. Intravenous Plain NSS (Normal Saline Solution) infusion is the treatment of choice for severe dehydration due to its ability to rapidly restore fluid and electrolyte balance. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to excessive fluid loss and dehydration. Plain NSS helps replenish lost fluids and electrolytes quickly.
Rationale for other choices:
A: Hypokalemia - Furosemide can cause hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion, but treatment involves potassium supplementation or potassium-sparing diuretics, not NSS infusion.
C: Dilutional hyponatremia - Furosemide can lead to dilutional hyponatremia by causing excessive water retention, but treatment focuses on fluid restriction and correcting underlying causes, not NSS infusion.
D: None of the above - This is incorrect as NSS infusion is indicated for severe dehydration in furosemide therapy.
The process by which water is reabsorbed by following solutes when they are reabsorbed is called
A. obligatory water reabsorption
B. facultative water reabsorption
C. osmotic water reabsorption
D. renin-angiotensin water reabsorption
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: facultative water reabsorption. This process occurs in the collecting ducts of the nephron in the kidney, where water reabsorption is regulated based on the body's hydration levels. When solutes like sodium are reabsorbed, water follows passively through aquaporin channels, adjusting the amount of water reabsorbed according to the body's needs.
A: Obligatory water reabsorption refers to the constant reabsorption of water in the proximal tubule and descending loop of Henle, not regulated based on hydration levels.
C: Osmotic water reabsorption is a general term referring to the movement of water based on osmotic gradients, not specifically regulated by solute reabsorption.
D: Renin-angiotensin water reabsorption involves the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system in response to low blood pressure, focusing on sodium reabsorption rather than direct regulation of
The process by which water is reabsorbed by following solutes when they are reabsorbed is called
A. obligatory water reabsorption
B. facultative water reabsorption
C. osmotic water reabsorption
D. renin-angiotensin water reabsorption
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: facultative water reabsorption. This process occurs in the collecting ducts of the nephron in the kidney, where water reabsorption is regulated based on the body's hydration levels. When solutes like sodium are reabsorbed, water follows passively through aquaporin channels, adjusting the amount of water reabsorbed according to the body's needs.
A: Obligatory water reabsorption refers to the constant reabsorption of water in the proximal tubule and descending loop of Henle, not regulated based on hydration levels.
C: Osmotic water reabsorption is a general term referring to the movement of water based on osmotic gradients, not specifically regulated by solute reabsorption.
D: Renin-angiotensin water reabsorption involves the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system in response to low blood pressure, focusing on sodium reabsorption rather than direct regulation of
When the nurse is performing a testicular examination on a 25-year-old man, which finding is considered normal?
A. Nontender subcutaneous plaques
B. Scrotal area that is dry, scaly, and nodular
C. Testes that feel oval and movable and are slightly sensitive to compression
D. Single, hard, circumscribed, movaNblUe RmSaIsNsG, lTeBss. CthOaMn 1 cm under the surface of the testes
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because testes that feel oval, movable, and slightly sensitive to compression are considered normal during a testicular examination in a 25-year-old man. This finding indicates normal testicular anatomy and function.
Rationale:
1. Oval shape: Normal testes are typically oval in shape.
2. Movable: Normal testes should be able to move slightly within the scrotum.
3. Sensitive to compression: Slight sensitivity to compression is normal due to the presence of nerves and blood vessels in the testes.
Summary of other choices:
A: Nontender subcutaneous plaques - Not normal; could indicate conditions like Peyronie's disease.
B: Scrotal area that is dry, scaly, and nodular - Not normal; could suggest dermatological conditions or infections.
D: Single, hard, circumscribed, movable mass 1 cm under the surface of the testes - Not normal; could be indicative of a test
Which of the following drugs valuable in the treatment of edema and metabolic alkalosis?
A. Digoxin
B. Spironolactone
C. Dobutamine
D. Acetazolamide
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Acetazolamide. Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that helps in the treatment of edema and metabolic alkalosis by promoting diuresis and increasing renal excretion of bicarbonate. It is effective in treating conditions associated with fluid retention and alkalosis.
A: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside used to treat heart conditions like heart failure and atrial fibrillation, not edema or metabolic alkalosis.
B: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used for conditions like hypertension and heart failure, but not specifically for metabolic alkalosis.
C: Dobutamine is a beta-adrenergic agonist used in acute heart failure or shock situations, not for edema or alkalosis.
In summary, Acetazolamide is the correct choice as it directly targets edema and metabolic alkalosis by affecting renal excretion of bicarbonate. Other options are
Which of the following drugs valuable in the treatment of edema and metabolic alkalosis?
A. Digoxin
B. Spironolactone
C. Dobutamine
D. Acetazolamide
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Acetazolamide. Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that helps in the treatment of edema and metabolic alkalosis by promoting diuresis and increasing renal excretion of bicarbonate. It is effective in treating conditions associated with fluid retention and alkalosis.
A: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside used to treat heart conditions like heart failure and atrial fibrillation, not edema or metabolic alkalosis.
B: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used for conditions like hypertension and heart failure, but not specifically for metabolic alkalosis.
C: Dobutamine is a beta-adrenergic agonist used in acute heart failure or shock situations, not for edema or alkalosis.
In summary, Acetazolamide is the correct choice as it directly targets edema and metabolic alkalosis by affecting renal excretion of bicarbonate. Other options are
When the nurse is performing a testicular examination on a 25-year-old man, which finding is considered normal?
A. Nontender subcutaneous plaques
B. Scrotal area that is dry, scaly, and nodular
C. Testes that feel oval and movable and are slightly sensitive to compression
D. Single, hard, circumscribed, movaNblUe RmSaIsNsG, lTeBss. CthOaMn 1 cm under the surface of the testes
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because testes that feel oval, movable, and slightly sensitive to compression are considered normal during a testicular examination in a 25-year-old man. This finding indicates normal testicular anatomy and function.
Rationale:
1. Oval shape: Normal testes are typically oval in shape.
2. Movable: Normal testes should be able to move slightly within the scrotum.
3. Sensitive to compression: Slight sensitivity to compression is normal due to the presence of nerves and blood vessels in the testes.
Summary of other choices:
A: Nontender subcutaneous plaques - Not normal; could indicate conditions like Peyronie's disease.
B: Scrotal area that is dry, scaly, and nodular - Not normal; could suggest dermatological conditions or infections.
D: Single, hard, circumscribed, movable mass 1 cm under the surface of the testes - Not normal; could be indicative of a test
This class of drug exert its antimicrobial action by binding to 30S ribosomes * and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis, is the drug of choice for treating non- gonoccocal urethritis caused by Chlamydia and Ureaplasma, but should be avoided in patients with liver disease:
A. Daptomycin
B. Carbapenems
C. Cephalosphorins
D. Tetracyclines
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Tetracyclines. Tetracyclines bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis, making them effective against Chlamydia and Ureaplasma causing non-gonococcal urethritis. They should be avoided in patients with liver disease due to the potential for hepatotoxicity.
A: Daptomycin is not the correct choice as it works by disrupting bacterial cell membrane function, not by binding to ribosomes.
B: Carbapenems are broad-spectrum antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis by binding to penicillin-binding proteins, not ribosomes.
C: Cephalosporins are beta-lactam antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis, not protein synthesis by binding to ribosomes.
In summary, tetracyclines are the drug of choice for the given condition due to their mechanism of action on ribosomes, while the other choices are incorrect as they target different
A 70 year old man requires treatment with an alpha-blocker for overflow incontinence due to enlarged prostate. Which of the following alpha blocking drugs is most appropriate drug to prescribe that will not affect his blood pressure significantly?
A. Prazosin
B. Phentolamine
C. Tamsulosin
D. Terazosin
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Tamsulosin. It is the most appropriate alpha-blocker for the elderly man with enlarged prostate and overflow incontinence because of its selective action on alpha-1A receptors in the prostate, leading to relaxation of smooth muscle without significantly affecting blood pressure.
Rationale:
1. Prazosin (Choice A) and Terazosin (Choice D) are non-selective alpha-blockers that can cause significant blood pressure lowering due to their action on alpha-1 receptors in blood vessels, which may not be suitable for this patient.
2. Phentolamine (Choice B) is also a non-selective alpha-blocker that can lead to significant blood pressure reduction, making it unsuitable for this patient.
3. Tamsulosin (Choice C) is a selective alpha-1A blocker, primarily acting on the prostate, with minimal impact on blood pressure, making it the most appropriate choice for this patient.
Which of the following drug/(s) that is /are used to treat chronic hepatitis B? *
A. Lamivudine
B. Human interferon α
C. Amantadine
D. (
Correct answer:
Step-by-step rationale for why A (Lamivudine) is correct:
1. Lamivudine is a nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor used to treat chronic hepatitis B.
2. It inhibits the replication of the hepatitis B virus, reducing viral load and liver damage.
3. Clinical studies have shown its efficacy in improving liver function and reducing the risk of cirrhosis.
4. Lamivudine is recommended as a first-line treatment option by major medical guidelines.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
B. Human interferon ?: While interferon therapy was previously used, it is no longer recommended as a first-line treatment due to its side effects and lower efficacy compared to newer drugs.
C. Amantadine: Amantadine is not recommended for the treatment of chronic hepatitis B as it is not effective against the hepatitis B virus.
D. (: This is not a valid drug option for treating chronic hepatitis B.
RN exams renal and urinary practice questions, set 3 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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