You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A 17-year-old male presents to the emergency department after slipping outside of a pool and hitting his head. The client is alert and oriented but is determined to have a mild concussion. Which of the following instructions would be appropriate for the nurse to administer prior to discharge?
A. “Avoid eating or drinking anything but water for 24 hours.â€
B. “Sleep supine with the head of the bed flat.â€
C. “Mild headaches are to be expected over the next week.â€
D. “Set an alarm to wake up once every hour overnight to prevent oversleeping.â€
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — “Mild headaches are to be expected over the next week.â€
The correct answer is C: “Mild headaches are to be expected over the next week.†This is appropriate because mild headaches are a common symptom following a mild concussion. It is important for the patient to be aware of this so they don't become overly concerned.
Choice A is incorrect because it is not necessary to avoid eating or drinking anything but water for 24 hours after a mild concussion.
Choice B is incorrect because the patient should not be instructed to sleep supine with the head of the bed flat. It is recommended to elevate the head slightly to help reduce swelling.
Choice D is incorrect because setting an alarm to wake up once every hour overnight is not necessary for a mild concussion. It is important for the patient to rest, but waking up every hour may disrupt sleep and hinder recovery.
Question 2
When caring for a client who has just been diagnosed with a chronic illness, the nurse understands the importance of promoting health by highlighting which concept?
A. Focus on what can no longer be
B. Focus on the altered functioning
C. Focus on what is possible
D. Focus on why the client has an illness
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Focus on what is possible
Promoting health post-chronic illness diagnosis shifts the client's perspective toward resilience, emphasizing what is possible achievable goals like managing symptoms or maintaining independence. This empowers the client, fostering hope and agency despite limitations, aligning with nursing's wellness focus. Focusing on what can no longer be or altered functioning highlights loss, risking despair, while probing the illness's cause offers little actionable benefit and may frustrate. By targeting possibilities like adapting activities for a diabetic client the nurse builds a positive care plan, leveraging strengths to optimize function. This approach mitigates the chronic condition's impact, encouraging a proactive mindset essential for long-term coping and quality of life, reflecting nursing's holistic support ethos.
Question 3
Residents with the abbreviation _____ on their diet cards cannot have anything to eat or drink by mouth.
A. NPO
B. NCS
C. LCS
D. ADA
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — NPO
The correct answer is A: NPO. NPO stands for "nil per os," which means nothing by mouth. This abbreviation is used to indicate that a patient should not have anything to eat or drink orally. It is crucial in situations where oral intake needs to be restricted for medical reasons.
Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect:
B: NCS - NCS stands for "no concentrated sweets" and relates to dietary restrictions for patients with diabetes. It does not indicate complete restriction from oral intake.
C: LCS - LCS stands for "low-calorie sweeteners" and is related to artificial sweeteners. It does not indicate complete restriction from oral intake.
D: ADA - ADA stands for American Diabetes Association and is an organization related to diabetes management. It does not indicate any restriction from oral intake.
Question 4
A client with bronchitis is prescribed guaifenesin. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
B. Avoid driving while taking this medication.
C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
D. Limit fluid intake to prevent overhydration.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Take the medication with a full glass of water.
The correct answer is A: Take the medication with a full glass of water. Guaifenesin is an expectorant that works by thinning and loosening mucus in the airways, making it easier to cough up. Taking it with a full glass of water helps hydrate the patient, which aids in thinning the mucus. This promotes easier expectoration and helps relieve symptoms.
Summary:
B: Avoid driving while taking this medication - This is not directly related to taking guaifenesin and would be more applicable to medications that cause drowsiness.
C: Take the medication on an empty stomach - Guaifenesin can be taken with or without food, so this is not necessary.
D: Limit fluid intake to prevent overhydration - Hydration is important when taking guaifenesin to help with expectoration, so limiting fluid intake would not be recommended.
Question 5
How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with a suspected infection?
A. Monitor temperature and check for elevated white blood cells
B. Monitor blood pressure and check for fever
C. Assess for changes in mental status and monitor urine output
D. Administer antibiotics and monitor for changes in mental status
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Monitor temperature and check for elevated white blood cells
When assessing a patient with a suspected infection, it is crucial to monitor temperature and check for elevated white blood cells. Elevated temperature indicates a potential infection, and increased white blood cells are a sign of inflammation and the body's response to an infection. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) and checking for fever (choice B) are not as specific indicators of infection as monitoring temperature and white blood cell count. Assessing changes in mental status and monitoring urine output (choice C) are important aspects of patient assessment but may not directly indicate a suspected infection. Administering antibiotics (choice D) should only be done after a confirmed diagnosis of a bacterial infection, as unnecessary antibiotic use can lead to antibiotic resistance and other adverse effects.
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Question 6
The nurse is performing an assessment on a 65-year-old man. He reports a crusty nodule behind the pinna. It intermittently bleeds and has not healed over the past 6 months. On physical assessment, the nurse finds an ulcerated crusted nodule with an indurated base. The preliminary analysis in this situation is that this:
A. Is most likely a benign sebaceous cyst.
B. Is most likely a keloid.
C. Could be a potential carcinoma, and the patient should be referred for a biopsy.
D. Is a tophus, which is common in the older adult and is a sign of gout.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because the presence of a crusty nodule that intermittently bleeds, does not heal, and has an ulcerated crusted appearance with an indurated base raises suspicion for potential carcinoma. This presentation is concerning for skin cancer, specifically a squamous cell carcinoma or basal cell carcinoma. Therefore, the patient should be referred for a biopsy to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate treatment.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a benign sebaceous cyst (A) typically presents as a painless, mobile, smooth nodule, a keloid (B) is characterized by an overgrowth of scar tissue and is not associated with the described symptoms, and a tophus (D) is a deposit of uric acid crystals seen in gout, which would present differently than the described ulcerated crusted nodule.
The nurse is preparing to auscultate for heart sounds. Which technique is correct?
A. Listening to the sounds at the aortic, tricuspid, pulmonic, and mitral areas
B. Listening by inching the stethoscope in a rough Z pattern, from the base of the heart across and down, then over to the apex
C. Listening to the sounds only at the site where the apical pulse is felt to be the strongest
D. Listening for all possible sounds at a time at each specified area
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because listening in a rough Z pattern allows the nurse to cover all areas where heart sounds can be best heard - aortic, pulmonic, tricuspid, and mitral. This technique ensures a systematic approach to auscultation, starting at the base of the heart and moving towards the apex where the mitral area is located. By inching the stethoscope in this pattern, the nurse can accurately identify any abnormalities in heart sounds.
Choice A is incorrect as it does not provide a systematic approach to auscultation and may lead to missing certain areas. Choice C is incorrect as heart sounds should be listened to at all relevant areas, not just where the apical pulse is strongest. Choice D is incorrect as listening for all possible sounds at once may lead to confusion and missing subtle abnormalities.
You are in the process of making a major purchase (e.g. house, car, expensive furniture, etc.) with your significant other. You give in to the choices of your significant other in order to make him/her happy.
A. The competing style
B. The avoiding style
C. The accommodation style
D. The collaboration style
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: The accommodation style. This style involves giving in to the preferences of your significant other to maintain peace and harmony in the relationship. By choosing to accommodate your partner's choices in a major purchase, you prioritize their happiness over your own desires. This approach can strengthen the bond between you and your significant other by showing understanding and support.
A: The competing style involves asserting your own preferences over your partner's, which may lead to conflicts in the relationship.
B: The avoiding style involves ignoring or postponing the decision, which does not address the issue at hand.
D: The collaboration style involves finding a mutually beneficial solution through open communication and compromise, which is not reflected in the scenario provided.
One way for a nursing assistant to help a resident with AD with eating is to
A. Put a few types of food on the plate at the same time.
B. Use dishes without patterns and simple place settings.
C. Withhold food until the resident is very hungry.
D. Serve steaming hot food.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because using dishes without patterns and simple place settings can help residents with Alzheimer's disease focus on their meal. Complex patterns can be distracting and confusing for them. This approach promotes independence and reduces agitation during mealtime.
Choice A is incorrect because presenting multiple types of food on the plate can overwhelm and confuse the resident, leading to decreased appetite and difficulty eating.
Choice C is incorrect as withholding food until the resident is very hungry can lead to frustration, increased agitation, and may even result in malnutrition.
Choice D is incorrect because serving steaming hot food can pose a burn risk to the resident if they have sensory impairments or cognitive deficits that prevent them from recognizing the temperature.
A customer is upset due to being denied access to a premises by a security operative. Which of these is a positive response to this situation from the security operative
A. Worrying
B. Distancing themselves
C. Avoidance
D. Keeping calm
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Keeping calm. This is the best response as it allows the security operative to handle the situation in a professional and composed manner. By staying calm, the operative can de-escalate the customer's emotions and communicate effectively.
A: Worrying is not a positive response as it can lead to further escalation of the situation and hinder the operative's ability to make sound decisions.
B: Distancing themselves may come across as indifferent or dismissive to the customer's concerns, worsening the situation.
C: Avoidance is not a proactive approach to resolving the issue and can create more frustration for the customer.
In summary, keeping calm enables the security operative to handle the situation professionally, whereas worrying, distancing, and avoiding can exacerbate the conflict.
One way that an NA can promote independence for a resident with special needs is to
A. Use physical and verbal cues
B. Make verbal cues lengthy and detailed
C. Put food into the weaker side of the resident's mouth
D. Put the plate to one side if the resident has a visual impairment
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because using physical and verbal cues can assist the resident with special needs in developing their independence by providing necessary guidance and support without taking over tasks. Verbal cues can offer guidance without being too overbearing, while physical cues can help the individual understand how to perform tasks independently.
Summary:
- Choice B is incorrect because lengthy and detailed verbal cues may overwhelm the resident and hinder their ability to act independently.
- Choice C is incorrect because physically assisting the resident by putting food into their mouth does not promote independence.
- Choice D is incorrect because putting the plate to one side for a visually impaired resident does not actively promote independence but rather accommodates for their impairment.
During a musculoskeletal assessment, the nurse notes that the patient has limited range of motion in the shoulder. What is the most likely cause of this finding?
A. Frozen shoulder (adhesive capsulitis).
B. Osteoarthritis.
C. Rheumatoid arthritis.
D. Bursitis.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Frozen shoulder (adhesive capsulitis). Frozen shoulder is characterized by pain and stiffness in the shoulder joint, leading to limited range of motion. The condition typically progresses through three stages: freezing, frozen, and thawing. During the freezing stage, inflammation and scarring of the shoulder capsule cause pain and restricted movement. In contrast, osteoarthritis primarily affects the joints, causing pain, stiffness, and reduced range of motion over time. Rheumatoid arthritis is a systemic autoimmune condition that can cause joint inflammation, but it usually affects multiple joints symmetrically. Bursitis involves inflammation of the bursae, fluid-filled sacs that cushion the joints, leading to pain and swelling but not necessarily restricted range of motion in the shoulder.
The Healthy People initiative includes a variety of objectives for promoting health and preventing illness. Which is an example of one of these objectives?
A. Increase the number of nurses in the workforce
B. Reduce the incidence of adolescent marijuana use
C. Increase funding to hospitals
D. Reduce the number of health insurance companies
Correct answer:
Healthy People sets evidence-based goals to boost U.S. health, and reducing adolescent marijuana use is a key objective cutting substance use lowers risks like addiction or mental health issues, aligning with illness prevention and youth wellness. More nurses or hospital funding, while supportive, aren't direct objectives workforce and economics underpin goals, not define them. Reducing insurance companies isn't a target; access expansion is. Marijuana reduction tied to data showing rising teen use fits the initiative's focus on behavior and health outcomes, guiding nursing to educate or screen in schools. This objective reflects nursing's preventive role, tackling a measurable public health issue with broad impact, distinct from structural fixes, and rooted in decades of Healthy People's population-focused vision.
A client expresses pain during dressing changes postoperatively. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?
A. Encourage the client to relax and take deep breaths during the dressing change.
B. Educate the client about the importance of pain management postoperatively.
C. Assist the client to a comfortable position for the dressing change.
D. Administer pain medication 45 minutes before changing the client's dressing.
Correct answer:
The priority action for the nurse is to address the client's immediate physiological need for comfort and pain relief during the dressing change. Administering pain medication 45 minutes before the procedure can help alleviate the pain experienced by the client. Encouraging relaxation techniques (choice A) is beneficial but may not provide sufficient pain relief during the dressing change. Educating about the importance of pain management (choice B) is relevant but does not address the immediate need for pain relief. Assisting the client to a comfortable position (choice C) is helpful but does not directly address the client's pain concern during the dressing change. Administering pain medication is the most direct and effective intervention to ensure optimal client comfort and compliance with necessary procedures.
The day shift nurses and night shift nurses are in clear opposition regarding the responsibilities that each shift should be assigned. This opposition has created a 'we-they' distinction on the unit. This is an example of which phenomenon
A. Distancing
B. Suppression
C. Group withdrawal
D. Unification
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Distancing. This phenomenon refers to the creation of an 'us vs. them' mentality between groups. In this scenario, the day shift nurses and night shift nurses are clearly divided, indicating a sense of separation and opposition. The term "distancing" accurately describes this situation as it highlights the division and lack of unity between the two groups.
Summary:
- B: Suppression is incorrect as it refers to the act of consciously holding back thoughts or emotions, not the division between groups.
- C: Group withdrawal is incorrect as it suggests a collective retreat or disengagement from a situation, not a clear opposition between two groups.
- D: Unification is incorrect as it implies the coming together or merging of groups, which is the opposite of what is described in the scenario.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 99 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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