LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 100

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LPN exams fundamentals practice questions set 100

You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.

Five fundamentals questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

The physician orders laboratory tests to confirm hyperthyroidism in a female client with classic signs and symptoms of this disorder. Which test result would confirm the diagnosis?

  1. A. No increase in the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level after 30 minutes during the TSH stimulation test
  2. B. A decreased TSH level
  3. C. An increase in the TSH level after 30 minutes during the TSH stimulation test
  4. D. Below-normal levels of serum triiodothyronine (T3) and serum thyroxine (T4) as detected by radioimmunoassay
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — A decreased TSH level

The correct answer is B: A decreased TSH level. In hyperthyroidism, there is an overproduction of thyroid hormones, leading to a negative feedback loop that suppresses the release of TSH from the pituitary gland. Therefore, a decreased TSH level is indicative of hyperthyroidism. Rationale: 1. A: No increase in TSH level after 30 minutes during TSH stimulation test - In hyperthyroidism, the TSH level would already be low, so no increase would be expected. 2. C: An increase in TSH level after 30 minutes during TSH stimulation test - This contradicts the pathophysiology of hyperthyroidism where TSH is suppressed. 3. D: Below-normal levels of serum T3 and T4 - While low T3 and T4 levels can occur in hypothyroidism, in hyperthyroidism, there is typically an excess of these hormones. In summary, a decreased TSH

Question 2

The nurse is examining a patient's ears and notices cerumen in the external canal. Which of these statements about cerumen is correct?

  1. A. Sticky honey-colored cerumen is a sign of infection.
  2. B. The presence of cerumen is indicative of poor hygiene.
  3. C. The purpose of cerumen is to protect and lubricate the ear.
  4. D. Cerumen is necessary for transmitting sound through the auditory canal.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — The purpose of cerumen is to protect and lubricate the ear.

Rationale for Correct Answer C: Cerumen, also known as earwax, serves to protect the ear canal by trapping dust and debris, preventing infections, and lubricating the skin. Its composition helps maintain the pH balance in the ear, preventing bacterial growth. Therefore, the statement that "the purpose of cerumen is to protect and lubricate the ear" is correct. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Sticky honey-colored cerumen is not necessarily a sign of infection. Cerumen can vary in color and consistency. B: The presence of cerumen does not solely indicate poor hygiene. It is a natural substance produced by the body. D: While cerumen can affect sound conduction if impacted, it is not necessary for transmitting sound through the auditory canal. Sound waves travel through the eardrum and middle ear to the cochlea.

Question 3

Which of the following is true of outpatient care?

  1. A. Outpatient care is given to people who are terminally ill.
  2. B. Outpatient care is the same type of care as rehabilitative care.
  3. C. Outpatient care is where a person has major surgery, such as heart bypass surgery.
  4. D. Outpatient care is short-term skilled care given for less than 24 hours.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Outpatient care is short-term skilled care given for less than 24 hours.

The correct answer is D because outpatient care refers to medical services provided to individuals who do not require overnight hospitalization, typically lasting for less than 24 hours. This care can include diagnostic tests, minor surgeries, and treatments. A is incorrect as outpatient care is not exclusively for terminally ill patients. B is incorrect as rehabilitative care focuses on restoring a patient's functional abilities, whereas outpatient care is broader in scope. C is incorrect as major surgeries like heart bypass surgery are typically performed in a hospital setting, not in outpatient care facilities. In summary, choice D is the correct answer as it accurately defines outpatient care as short-term skilled care provided for a duration less than 24 hours, distinguishing it from the other choices.

Question 4

People who experience psychotic disorders lose:

  1. A. The will to continue
  2. B. Contact with reality
  3. C. The ability to comply with treatment
  4. D. Contact with intellectual functions
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Contact with reality

Certainly! The correct answer is B: People who experience psychotic disorders lose contact with reality. Psychotic disorders involve a disconnection from reality, leading to hallucinations, delusions, and impaired thinking. This loss of contact with reality is a hallmark of psychotic disorders. As for the other choices: A: The will to continue - While individuals with psychotic disorders may struggle with motivation, this is not the primary feature of psychotic disorders. C: The ability to comply with treatment - While compliance with treatment may be challenging, it is not the core aspect of psychotic disorders. D: Contact with intellectual functions - While psychotic disorders can impact cognitive abilities, the defining characteristic is the loss of contact with reality rather than intellectual functions.

Question 5

Which statement is the most appropriate goal for a nursing diagnosis of diarrhea?

  1. A. The patient will experience a decreased frequency of bowel elimination.'
  2. B. The patient will take anti-diarrheal medication.'
  3. C. The patient will give a stool specimen for laboratory examinations.'
  4. D. The patient will save urine for inspection by the nurse.'
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — The patient will experience a decreased frequency of bowel elimination.'

For a nursing diagnosis of diarrhea, the goal should target symptom resolution, making 'The patient will experience a decreased frequency of bowel elimination' most appropriate. It's specific (frequency reduction), measurable (counting episodes), and addresses the core issue excessive stools aiming for normalcy. Taking anti-diarrheal medication is an intervention, not a goal, as it's a means to an end, not the outcome itself. Collecting a stool specimen supports diagnosis but doesn't resolve diarrhea. Saving urine is irrelevant, as diarrhea involves bowel, not urinary, function. The chosen goal aligns with patient comfort and health restoration, following SMART criteria, guiding nursing actions like hydration or diet adjustments, and providing a clear benchmark for evaluation, essential for effective care planning.

Keep going past these 15 questions

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Question 6

A nurse uses an institution's procedure manual to confirm how to insert a nasogastric tube. The level of critical thinking the nurse is using is:

  1. A. Basic critical thinking
  2. B. Commitment
  3. C. Complex critical thinking
  4. D. Scientific method
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 7

The nurse-manager on a labor and delivery unit is monitoring the reasons for cesarean births at the facility. Which reasons contribute to the high rates of cesarean births? Select all that apply.

  1. A. Fetuses in breech position unable to deliver vaginally
  2. B. Increased number of elective or maternal request cesareans
  3. C. Incidences of women of older maternal age getting pregnant
  4. D. Decreasing rate of malpractice litigation with cesarean birth
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 8

What is a condition that results from a weakened sphincter muscle joining the esophagus?

  1. A. Gastroesophageal discomfort
  2. B. Ulcers
  3. C. Heartburn
  4. D. Malabsorption
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 9

The nurse is caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which intervention is most effective in improving oxygenation?

  1. A. Administering high-flow oxygen via nasal cannula.
  2. B. Positioning the client in the prone position.
  3. C. Performing frequent oral suctioning.
  4. D. Increasing the respiratory rate on the ventilator.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 10

A nurse works with clients who have alopecia from chemotherapy. What action by the nurse takes priority?

  1. A. Helping clients adjust to their appearance
  2. B. Reassuring clients that this change is temporary
  3. C. Referring clients to a reputable wig shop
  4. D. Teaching measures to prevent scalp injury
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 11

A patient is receiving antibiotics for pneumonia. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?

  1. A. Temperature of 101°F (38.3°C).
  2. B. Oxygen saturation of 88% on room air.
  3. C. Productive cough with yellow sputum.
  4. D. Crackles in both lung bases.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 12

A patient with COPD reports increased dyspnea. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

  1. A. Administer a prescribed bronchodilator.
  2. B. Increase oxygen flow rate.
  3. C. Assess arterial blood gases.
  4. D. Encourage pursed-lip breathing.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 13

A healthcare professional is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following measures should the professional take to prevent the spread of infection?

  1. A. Place a client with TB in a room with negative pressure airflow
  2. B. Use a disposable gown for contact precautions
  3. C. Place a client with MRSA in a private room
  4. D. Use a mask for clients with influenza
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 14

One important task to complete when collecting a 24-hour urine specimen is to

  1. A. Use a specimen kit to collect the urine
  2. B. Clean the perineal area before collecting the specimen
  3. C. Use strainers to filter all urine from the resident
  4. D. Create a sign to hang near the bed to alert all staff
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 15

A community health nurse is working with a family in which an elderly woman was neglected by her son and his wife. The elderly woman insists on remaining with the young couple despite the threat of future neglect. Which intervention should be given highest priority?

  1. A. Identify community resources to decrease the caregivers' stress.
  2. B. Establish family obligations, client rights, and consequences of abuse and monitor.
  3. C. Educate the caregivers on the aging process and how to cope with it.
  4. D. Provide stress management techniques for the caregivers.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

About these LPN exams fundamentals questions

LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 100 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.

The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

Keep going past these 15 questions

Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.