You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
When planning to contact the healthcare provider about a client's need for a belt restraint, what information is most important to report?
A. The presence and location of any pressure ulcers.
B. Measures already taken to maintain client safety.
C. Any special mattresses on the client's bed.
D. Current vital signs and oxygen saturation.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Measures already taken to maintain client safety.
The correct answer is B. When reporting to the healthcare provider about a client's need for a belt restraint, it is crucial to provide information on the measures already taken to maintain client safety. This includes detailing alternative strategies that have been tried before considering restraint use. This information helps the healthcare provider assess the situation comprehensively and explore other safety interventions. Choices A, C, and D, though relevant to the client's care, are not as critical to report when discussing the need for a belt restraint. Pressure ulcers (Choice A) are important but not directly related to the need for a belt restraint. The presence of special mattresses (Choice C) may influence overall care but is not the most pertinent information when considering restraints. Current vital signs and oxygen saturation (Choice D) are essential for the client's overall assessment but do not directly address the need for a belt restraint.
Question 2
The nurse is reviewing a prescription for a medication that a patient is to receive, which component is recognized as being required as a part of the prescription?
A. The prescriber signature
B. The patient's diagnosis
C. The patient's age
D. The patient's weight
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — The prescriber signature
A prescription is a legal document that authorizes the administration of medication, and it must include specific components to be valid. The signature of the prescriber is a mandatory element because it authenticates the order, ensuring it comes from a licensed professional with the authority to prescribe. Without this, the prescription lacks legal standing and cannot be acted upon by the nurse or pharmacist. While including the patient's diagnosis can provide context for the medication's purpose, it is not universally required. Similarly, age and weight might be relevant for dosing adjustments, especially in pediatrics or geriatrics, but they are not mandatory for the prescription's validity. The prescriber's signature, however, is a critical safeguard, ensuring accountability and traceability in the healthcare system. It confirms the prescriber's intent and protects against unauthorized or fraudulent orders, making it an indispensable part of the process.
Question 3
Six months after an educational activity on documentation, a nursing professional development specialist performs an audit of patient charts. Which type of evaluation does the audit reflect
A. Content
B. Impact
C. Outcome
D. Process
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Outcome
The correct answer is C: Outcome. The audit of patient charts conducted by the nursing professional development specialist evaluates the actual results or outcomes of the educational activity on documentation. This type of evaluation focuses on the changes in behavior or performance as a result of the training. It assesses whether the desired learning outcomes were achieved and if the knowledge and skills acquired during the educational activity were effectively applied in practice.
Choice A (Content) is incorrect because it focuses on the relevance and adequacy of the educational material, not the actual impact on patient care.
Choice B (Impact) is incorrect as it pertains to the immediate effects of the training, such as changes in attitudes or knowledge, rather than the long-term outcomes on patient care.
Choice D (Process) is incorrect as it evaluates the delivery and organization of the educational activity itself, not the impact on patient charts.
Question 4
A client is advised to take senna (Senokot) for the treatment of constipation asks the nurse how this medication works. The nurse responds knowing that it:
A. accumulates water in the stool and increases peristalsis
B. stimulates the vagus nerve
C. coats the bowel wall
D. adds fiber and bulk to the stool
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — accumulates water in the stool and increases peristalsis
Senna is a stimulant laxative commonly used to relieve constipation by promoting bowel movements. Its mechanism involves irritating the lining of the large intestine, which alters water and electrolyte transport. This irritation causes water to accumulate in the stool, softening it and making it easier to pass, while simultaneously stimulating peristalsis, the wave-like muscle contractions that move stool through the colon. Unlike fiber supplements, senna doesn't add bulk; it works pharmacologically to enhance motility. It doesn't directly stimulate the vagus nerve, which regulates involuntary functions like heart rate, nor does it coat the bowel wall like a lubricant. By increasing water content and intestinal activity, senna effectively addresses constipation, typically producing results within 6 to 12 hours. Understanding this helps the nurse explain its action clearly, ensuring the client knows what to expect and how it differs from other laxative types.
Question 5
Group tension comes in two types. They are:
A. Internal and external
B. Primary and secondary
C. Group and environmental
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Primary and secondary
The correct answer is B: Primary and secondary. Group tension is categorized into primary tension, which refers to the initial discomfort and awkwardness when a new group forms, and secondary tension, which arises from conflicting personalities or goals within the group over time. This distinction helps in understanding the different stages and dynamics of group interactions.
A: Internal and external tension are not the standard categorizations for group tension, as they focus on the source of tension rather than the nature or stage of tension.
C: Group and environmental tension do not accurately capture the specific types of tension that occur within group dynamics, as they are too broad and do not differentiate between primary and secondary tension.
In summary, the primary and secondary tension distinction is crucial for understanding the evolving dynamics within groups, while the other choices do not provide the same level of clarity and specificity.
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Question 6
While planning a patients care, the nurse identifies nursing actions to minimize the patients pleuritic pain. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
A. Avoid actions that will cause the patient to breathe deeply
B. Ambulate the patient at least three times daily
C. Arrange for a soft-textured diet and increased fluid intake
D. Encourage the patient to speak as little as possible
Correct answer:
Pleuritic pain, caused by inflamed pleural surfaces rubbing during respiration, intensifies with deep breathing, coughing, or movement, necessitating interventions that minimize these triggers. Avoiding actions that cause deep breathing such as excessive activity or forced respiratory exercises reduces pleural friction, alleviating pain and improving patient comfort, a primary nursing goal. Ambulation thrice daily, while beneficial for circulation, may exacerbate pain by increasing respiratory effort, countering pain management aims. A soft diet and fluids address hydration or swallowing but don't directly relieve pleuritic pain, which is unrelated to nutrition. Limiting speech is unnecessary, as it minimally affects chest movement compared to breathing. By prioritizing rest and shallow breathing, the nurse mitigates pain's impact on recovery, potentially supplementing with analgesics, aligning with holistic care for conditions like pleurisy or pneumothorax.
Formulating a nursing diagnosis is a joint function of:
A. Patient and relatives
B. Nurse and patient
C. Doctor and family
D. Nurse and doctor
Correct answer:
Formulating a nursing diagnosis involves the nurse and patient collaborating to identify health problems based on assessment data. The nurse collects subjective input (e.g., patient-reported symptoms) and objective findings (e.g., vital signs), then analyzes them with the patient's perspective to define needs and goals. This partnership ensures patient-centered care, reflecting the patient's experiences and priorities. Relatives may offer insights, but the primary focus is the patient's direct input, not family consensus. Doctors diagnose medical conditions, not nursing diagnoses, which address human responses to health issues distinct from medical roles. Nurse-doctor collaboration informs broader care, but nursing diagnosis formulation centers on nursing scope, not physician directive. The nurse-patient dynamic leverages the nurse's expertise and the patient's lived experience, making it the essential joint function for accurate, tailored nursing diagnoses.
What will be considered as 1 of the 10 greatest public health achievements in the US to provide safer nutrition?
A. Healthier food options in schools
B. Eliminating junk food in cities
C. Reduction of microbial contamination of foods
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Reduction of microbial contamination of foods. This is a significant public health achievement as it directly addresses the safety of food consumed by the public, reducing the risk of foodborne illnesses. By implementing measures to reduce microbial contamination, such as proper food handling, sanitation practices, and food safety regulations, the likelihood of foodborne diseases is minimized, leading to a healthier population.
Choice A: Healthier food options in schools, while beneficial, focuses on improving nutritional quality rather than directly addressing food safety concerns related to microbial contamination.
Choice B: Eliminating junk food in cities aims at reducing the consumption of unhealthy foods but does not specifically target the safety of food in terms of microbial contamination.
Thus, choice C is the most appropriate option as it directly addresses the issue of food safety and its impact on public health.
When a severely injured trauma victim enters the emergency department, the physicians and nursing staff generally tend to come together for the 'common good.' This describes which communication strategies?
A. Less enthusiasm and frantic, quick statements of doom
B. Somber tone with short, monosyllabic words
C. Use of professional wording and less familiarity with team members
D. More personal and group approach
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because in a high-stress situation like treating a severely injured trauma victim, a more personal and group approach fosters effective communication and collaboration among physicians and nursing staff. By coming together for the 'common good,' they can share information, make decisions collectively, and support each other emotionally. This approach promotes teamwork, empathy, and a sense of unity, which are crucial in providing optimal care for the patient.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the need for effective teamwork and collaboration in such critical situations. Choice A suggests a negative and pessimistic attitude, which can hinder communication and teamwork. Choice B implies a lack of engagement and emotional connection, which may lead to misunderstandings and inefficiencies. Choice C emphasizes formality over camaraderie, which may impede open and effective communication among team members.
Muscles are specialized tissues responsible for movement and are classified based on structure and function. The three distinct types are cardiac, smooth, and skeletal. Cardiac muscle powers the heart, contracting involuntarily to pump blood. Smooth muscle lines organs like the stomach and blood vessels, also working involuntarily to manage processes like digestion. Skeletal muscle, attached to bones, enables voluntary movements like walking or lifting. Tendons, ligaments, and joints are connective structures, not muscle types tendons link muscle to bone, ligaments connect bones, and joints are bone junctions. Flexion and extension describe movements, not muscle categories, and stringy isn't a scientific term for muscle. The correct classification reflects the histological and functional diversity of muscle tissue, critical for understanding their roles in the body, distinguishing them from structural or movement descriptors that don't define muscle itself.
A 75-year-old man is being discharged to his home following a fall in his kitchen that resulted in a fractured pelvis. The home health nurse makes a home assessment that will be used to design interventions to meet which priority need?
A. sleep and rest
B. support from family members
C. protection from potential harm
D. feeling a sense of accomplishment
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: protection from potential harm. Following a fractured pelvis from a fall, the priority need is ensuring the patient's safety at home to prevent further harm. The home assessment will focus on identifying and addressing potential hazards that could lead to additional falls or injuries. This includes assessing the home environment for safety modifications, such as installing grab bars in the bathroom or removing tripping hazards. Ensuring protection from potential harm is essential for the patient's recovery and overall well-being.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the immediate safety concerns associated with the patient's fractured pelvis. While sleep and rest, support from family members, and feeling a sense of accomplishment are important aspects of care, they are not the priority in this scenario where the main focus should be on preventing further injury and ensuring the patient's safety at home.
The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a 64-year-old patient with coronary artery disease (CAD). Which factor should the nurse focus on during the teaching session?
A. Family history of coronary artery disease
B. Elevated low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level
C. Greater risk associated with the patient’s gender
D. Increased risk of cardiovascular disease with aging
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B (Elevated low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level) because it directly correlates with the patient's CAD condition. Elevated LDL cholesterol is a major risk factor for developing CAD. By focusing on lowering the LDL level through lifestyle changes and medication, the nurse can effectively manage and prevent further progression of the disease.
A (Family history of coronary artery disease) while important, is a non-modifiable risk factor and may not be as impactful in the teaching plan as addressing the patient's current elevated LDL level.
C (Greater risk associated with the patient's gender) is not as relevant in this case because the patient's specific risk factors should be the main focus rather than general gender-related risks.
D (Increased risk of cardiovascular disease with aging) is a common risk factor, but in this case, addressing the patient's elevated LDL level would be more specific and beneficial for managing CAD.
You are on-scene with a patient in cardiac arrest. You turn the monitor/defibrillator on and attach the pads to the patient. When it begins to analyze the patient's cardiac rhythm, it signals 'low battery' and then shuts off. You have no other batteries available, and an electrical plug is not available. The patient subsequently dies despite adequate CPR and advanced airway and ventilation during transport. Which of the following could result?
A. Manslaughter charges could be brought against the paramedic in charge of the unit
B. Negligence charges could be brought against the paramedic in charge of the unit
C. Battery charges could be brought against the entire service
D. Defamation charges could be brought against the entire crew on scene
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Negligence charges could be brought against the paramedic in charge of the unit.
Rationale:
1. Negligence: In this scenario, the paramedic failed to ensure the equipment was properly charged, leading to the death of the patient.
2. Duty of Care: The paramedic had a duty to ensure the equipment was functional to provide appropriate care to the patient.
3. Breach of Duty: By not ensuring the defibrillator had adequate battery power, the paramedic breached their duty of care.
4. Proximate Cause: The lack of functioning equipment directly contributed to the patient's death.
5. Legal Liability: Negligence in providing care can result in legal charges being brought against the individual responsible for the patient's care.
Summary:
A: Manslaughter charges are not applicable as there was no intent to harm the patient.
C: Battery charges are not relevant as it refers to physical harm, not the lack of battery power in equipment
A client is to be discharged from an acute care facility after treatment for right leg thrombophlebitis. The nurse notes that the client's leg is pain-free, without redness or edema. The nurse's actions reflect which step of the nursing process?
A. Assessment
B. Analysis
C. Implementation
D. Evaluation
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Evaluation. In the nursing process, evaluation is the final step where the nurse determines if the goals and outcomes of care have been achieved. In this scenario, the nurse is assessing the client's condition before discharge to ensure there are no signs of thrombophlebitis. The absence of pain, redness, and edema indicates successful treatment. This step aligns with the evaluation phase as the nurse is assessing the client's response to treatment.
A: Assessment is incorrect because the nurse has already assessed the client's leg and is now determining the effectiveness of the treatment.
B: Analysis is incorrect as this step involves interpreting the data collected during assessment to identify problems and make nursing diagnoses.
C: Implementation is incorrect as this step involves carrying out the nursing interventions to achieve the established goals. The nurse has already implemented the treatment plan in this scenario.
The __________ is the first measurement of blood pressure
A. when the heart is at work
B. Diastolic
C. Orthostatic
D. Systolic
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Orthostatic. Orthostatic blood pressure measurement is the first measurement taken when assessing blood pressure. This measurement is done with the individual in a standing position after resting for a few minutes. It helps to evaluate for postural changes in blood pressure, which can indicate conditions like orthostatic hypotension.
Explanation for other choices:
A: when the heart is at work - This is not the first measurement taken for blood pressure assessment. It refers to blood pressure measurement during physical activity or stress.
B: Diastolic - Diastolic blood pressure is the second number in a blood pressure reading, representing the pressure in the arteries when the heart is at rest.
D: Systolic - Systolic blood pressure is the first number in a blood pressure reading, representing the pressure in the arteries when the heart contracts. It is not the first measurement taken in a standard blood pressure assessment.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 24 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
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Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.