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LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 103

LPN exams · fundamentals

LPN exams fundamentals practice questions set 103

You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.

Five fundamentals questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

A group of newly licensed nurses is being instructed by a nurse about the responsibilities that organ donation and procurement involve. When the nurse explains that all clients waiting for a kidney transplant have to meet the same qualifications, the newly licensed nurses should understand that this aspect of care delivery is an example of which of the following ethical principles?

  1. A. Fidelity
  2. B. Autonomy
  3. C. Justice
  4. D. Nonmaleficence
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Justice

The correct answer is 'C: Justice.' Justice in healthcare ethics involves fairness and providing equal treatment to all individuals in similar situations. In this scenario, ensuring that all clients waiting for a kidney transplant meet the same qualifications aligns with the principle of justice by offering equal opportunities for transplantation. Choice A, 'Fidelity,' pertains to keeping promises and being loyal to patients, not the equal treatment of individuals. Choice B, 'Autonomy,' refers to respecting patients' rights to make decisions about their own care, which is not directly related to the equal qualifications for kidney transplants. Choice D, 'Nonmaleficence,' focuses on the obligation to do no harm, which is important in healthcare but not the primary ethical principle demonstrated in this scenario.

Question 2

Macario had coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery 3 days ago. Which of the following conditions is suspected by the nurse when a decrease in platelet count from 230,000 ul to 5,000 ul is noted?

  1. A. Pancytopenia
  2. B. Idiopathic thrombocytopemic purpura (ITP)
  3. C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
  4. D. Heparin-associated thrombosis and thrombocytopenia (HATT)
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Heparin-associated thrombosis and thrombocytopenia (HATT)

The correct answer is D: Heparin-associated thrombosis and thrombocytopenia (HATT). Following CABG surgery, patients are at risk for developing HATT due to the use of heparin as anticoagulant. The sudden decrease in platelet count from 230,000 to 5,000 suggests heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), a condition where the immune system activates platelets in response to heparin, leading to platelet destruction and thrombosis. Pancytopenia (choice A) is a reduction in all blood cell types, not specific to platelets. Idiopathic thrombocytopemic purpura (ITP) (choice B) is an autoimmune disorder characterized by low platelets, but not typically associated with recent surgery. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) (choice C) involves widespread clotting leading to platelet consumption, but the rapid decrease

Question 3

The forensic psychiatric nurse oftentimes has conflicting goals when providing psychiatric care while serving the legal system. Which situation best demonstrates this conflict?

  1. A. Performing a mental health assessment on an individual diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia who is accused of violently attacking a neighbor he believed was 'spying for the government'
  2. B. Providing both physical and emotional care to a female who was raped while securing and preserving the evidence that will be used in a court of law
  3. C. Arranging for and then leading an anger management therapy group for a group of female offenders who are about to be paroled
  4. D. Conducting a depression screening on a newly incarcerated prisoner serving a 25-year sentence in a federal prison
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Performing a mental health assessment on an individual diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia who is accused of violently attacking a neighbor he believed was 'spying for the government'

The correct answer is A because it demonstrates the conflict between providing psychiatric care and serving the legal system. In this scenario, the nurse must assess a patient with paranoid schizophrenia who committed a violent act due to delusions. The nurse needs to balance the patient's mental health needs with addressing the legal implications of the violent behavior. Choice B involves caring for a rape victim and preserving evidence, which aligns with both nursing and legal responsibilities. Choice C focuses on providing therapy to offenders, which does not inherently present a conflict between psychiatric care and legal duties. Choice D involves conducting a depression screening for a prisoner, which is important for mental health care but does not inherently involve a conflict with legal obligations.

Question 4

One way for nursing assistants to help meet the psychosocial and spiritual needs of a dying resident is to

  1. A. Leave the resident alone as much as possible
  2. B. Listen more
  3. C. talk less
  4. D. Share their religious beliefs with the resident
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Listen more

The correct answer is B: Listen more. Nursing assistants can help meet the psychosocial and spiritual needs of a dying resident by actively listening to them. By listening attentively, the nursing assistant can provide emotional support, comfort, and validation to the resident. This helps the resident feel heard and understood, fostering a sense of connection and dignity during their end-of-life care. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Leaving the resident alone can increase feelings of isolation and abandonment during a vulnerable time. C: Talking less may result in the resident feeling unheard and neglected, leading to unmet emotional needs. D: Sharing personal religious beliefs can be inappropriate and may not align with the resident's own beliefs or preferences, potentially causing distress.

Question 5

A 35 year old female sustains multiple injuries in a motor vehicle crash and is transported to a small hospital in full spinal protection. She has a GCS of 4 and is being mechanically ventilate I.v access is established and warmed crystalloid is infuse She remains hemodynamically normal and full spinal protection is maintaine Preparations are made to transfer her to another facility for definitive neurosurgical care. Prior to transport, which of the following tests or treatments is mandatory?

  1. A. FAST exam
  2. B. Lateral cervical spine xray
  3. C. Chest x-ray
  4. D. Administration of methylprednisolone
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Chest x-ray

The correct answer is C: Chest x-ray. In this scenario, the patient is at risk for thoracic injuries due to the motor vehicle crash and the need for mechanical ventilation. A chest x-ray is essential to assess for potential life-threatening conditions such as pneumothorax, hemothorax, or pulmonary contusions. This information is crucial for the safe transfer of the patient to another facility. A: FAST exam is typically used to assess for intra-abdominal bleeding and is not mandatory in this case. B: Lateral cervical spine x-ray is not necessary as the patient is already in full spinal protection and needs definitive neurosurgical care, not initial evaluation. D: Administration of methylprednisolone is not mandatory at this stage and should be based on specific guidelines for spinal cord injury management.

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Question 6

The most common cause of blindness in India is :

  1. A. Cataract
  2. B. Trachoma
  3. C. Refractive errors
  4. D. Vitamin deficiency
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Question 7

Angina is produced by an imbalance between myocardial oxygen supply (MOS) and demand (MOD) in the myocardium. Which of the following drugs help to correct this imbalance by increasing MOS?

  1. A. Calcium channel blockers
  2. B. Beta blockers
  3. C. Angiotensin-converting-enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
  4. D. Aspirin
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Question 8

What is the significance of the A band during muscle contraction?

  1. A. It shortens during muscle contraction as the actin filaments slide past the myosin filaments
  2. B. It remains unchanged in length during contraction as the thick and thin filaments overlap
  3. C. It is where the Z-lines are attached to the actin filaments
  4. D. It is where only thin (actin) filaments are found
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Question 9

The most common site that is used for measuring pulse rate is the

  1. A. Radial pulse
  2. B. Brachial pulse
  3. C. Carotid pulse
  4. D. Pedal pulse
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Question 10

Which of the following is an effect of regular ambulation?

  1. A. Decreased sleep
  2. B. Improved circulation
  3. C. Reduced oxygen level
  4. D. Slower elimination
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Question 11

A nurse is caring for several clients in a community health setting and wants to engage in secondary prevention activities with a client who does not exhibit symptoms of illness. Which activity meets this goal?

  1. A. Teaching about a low-fat diet
  2. B. Screening for hearing loss
  3. C. Referring the client to a smoking cessation class
  4. D. Planning care with a client who has COPD
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Question 12

The nurse provides education during the discharge of a client who has a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis. Which priority statement does the nurse include in the teaching?

  1. A. Schedule the occupational therapist to do a safety assessment of your home
  2. B. Participate in exercise every day.
  3. C. Keep a supply of incontinence products available.
  4. D. Contact family and friends to see what support they can offer.
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Question 13

What is the primary goal of using gonadotropins in fertility treatments?

  1. A. To suppress ovulation for egg preservation.
  2. B. To stimulate the ovaries to produce multiple eggs.
  3. C. To prevent hormonal fluctuations during the menstrual cycle.
  4. D. To enhance uterine lining growth for implantation.
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Question 14

The signs and symptoms of heart failure include:

  1. A. Polyphagia and polydipsia.
  2. B. Orthopnoea and gastrointestinal disruption.
  3. C. Urinary frequency and acute pulmonary oedema.
  4. D. Dyspnoea and peripheral oedema.
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Question 15

A client is admitted to the Emergency Department after a motorcycle accident that resulted in the client's skidding across a cement parking lot. Since the client was wearing shorts, there are large areas on the legs where the skin is ripped off. This wound is best described as:

  1. A. Abrasion
  2. B. Unapproximated
  3. C. Laceration
  4. D. Eschar
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About these LPN exams fundamentals questions

LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 103 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.

The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

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