You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
What type of study randomly assigns an individual to receive the currently available formulation of a blood pressure medication or the newly formulated slow-release formulation of the blood pressure medication?
A. Experimental
B. Observational
C. Case-control
D. Cohort
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Experimental
The correct answer is A: Experimental. In an experimental study, researchers randomly assign participants to different groups to test the effects of an intervention. In this case, participants are randomly assigned to receive either the currently available formulation or the new slow-release formulation of the blood pressure medication. This random assignment helps minimize bias and allows for causal inferences to be drawn.
Incorrect Choices:
B: Observational studies do not involve random assignment of participants to different groups receiving different interventions.
C: Case-control studies compare individuals with a specific outcome to those without the outcome, but do not involve random assignment.
D: Cohort studies follow a group of individuals over time based on exposure status, but do not involve random assignment to different interventions.
Question 2
A nurse reviews a client’s laboratory results. Which findings would alert the nurse to the possibility of atherosclerosis? (Select all that apply.)
A. Total cholesterol: 280 mg/dL (7.3 mmol/L)
B. High-density lipoprotein cholesterol: 50 mg/dL (1.3 mmol/L)
Step-by-step rationale:
1. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol is known as "good" cholesterol and lower levels are associated with increased risk of atherosclerosis.
2. HDL cholesterol of 50 mg/dL (1.3 mmol/L) is considered low and indicates a potential risk for atherosclerosis.
3. Atherosclerosis is characterized by the buildup of plaque in arteries, which can be influenced by cholesterol levels.
4. Total cholesterol and triglyceride levels are also important in assessing cardiovascular risk, but HDL cholesterol specifically is more indicative of atherosclerosis.
5. Serum albumin is not directly related to atherosclerosis.
Summary:
Choice B is correct as low HDL cholesterol levels are a key indicator of potential atherosclerosis risk. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not specifically relate to the risk of atherosclerosis.
Question 3
A client is admitted to an acute care facility with a diagnosis of cerebrovascular accident (CVA). The history reveals bronchial asthma, exogenous obesity, and severe headaches. Which history finding is a risk factor for CVA?
A. Caucasian race
B. Female sex
C. Obesity
D. Bronchial asthma
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Obesity
The correct answer is C: Obesity. Obesity is a significant risk factor for cerebrovascular accidents (CVAs) due to its association with hypertension, diabetes, and dyslipidemia, all of which increase the risk of stroke. Excess weight can lead to inflammation, endothelial dysfunction, and atherosclerosis, contributing to the development of CVAs.
The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Caucasian race is not a direct risk factor for CVA. Risk factors are based on individual health conditions rather than race.
B: Female sex alone is not a risk factor for CVA. However, certain conditions more prevalent in females, such as migraine headaches or hormonal factors, could contribute to CVA risk.
D: While bronchial asthma may lead to decreased oxygen supply and potentially increase stroke risk, it is not considered a major risk factor compared to obesity.
Question 4
The nurse is caring for a patient in preadmission testing. The patient has been assigned a physical status classification by the American Society of Anesthesiologists of P3. Which of the following assessments would support this classification?
A. Denial of any major illnesses or conditions
B. Normal, healthy patient
C. History of hypertension, 80 pounds overweight, history of asthma
D. History of myocardial infarction that limits activity
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — History of hypertension, 80 pounds overweight, history of asthma
A P3 classification indicates severe systemic disease per the American Society of Anesthesiologists, supported by a history of hypertension, significant obesity (80 pounds overweight), and asthma. These conditions impair multiple systems cardiovascular strain from hypertension, respiratory compromise from asthma, and obesity-related surgical risks fitting P3's criteria of severe but not immediately life-threatening disease. Denial of major illnesses or a normal, healthy status aligns with P1, a healthy patient. Mild systemic disease, like controlled hypertension alone, fits P2. A myocardial infarction limiting activity, a constant threat to life, denotes P4. The nurse's assessment confirms P3 by identifying these chronic, severe conditions, ensuring anesthesia and surgical plans account for heightened risks like respiratory distress or poor wound healing.
Question 5
Which factor causes the act of ovulation?
A. blood pressure
B. LH levels
C. FSH levels
D. estrogen
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — LH levels
The correct answer is B: LH levels. Ovulation is triggered by a surge in luteinizing hormone (LH) levels, which causes the release of the mature egg from the ovary. LH surge is a key event in the menstrual cycle that leads to ovulation.
Explanation:
1. LH surge stimulates the release of the egg from the dominant follicle in the ovary.
2. This surge typically occurs around the middle of the menstrual cycle.
3. Ovulation occurs within 24-36 hours after the LH surge.
4. FSH (Choice C) is involved in follicle development but does not directly cause ovulation.
5. Estrogen (Choice D) plays a role in the menstrual cycle but does not directly trigger ovulation.
6. Blood pressure (Choice A) is not involved in the process of ovulation.
Summary: LH levels are the primary factor that causes ovulation by triggering the release of the egg from the ovary
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.
Question 6
A patient scheduled for a total laryngectomy and radical neck dissection for cancer of the larynx asks the nurse, 'Will I be able to talk normally after surgery?' What is the most accurate response by the nurse?
A. You will breathe through a permanent opening in your neck, but you will not be able to communicate orally.'
B. You won’t be able to talk right after surgery, but you will be able to speak again after the tracheostomy tube is removed.'
C. You will have a permanent opening into your neck, and you will need rehabilitation for some type of voice restoration.'
D. You won’t be able to speak as you used to, but there are artificial voice devices that will give you the ability to speak normally.'
Correct answer:
Rationale for correct answer C: After a total laryngectomy, the patient loses their natural voice box, making it impossible to speak normally. The permanent opening in the neck, called a stoma, allows breathing. Speech rehabilitation is essential for voice restoration using techniques like esophageal speech or voice prosthesis. This answer is accurate as it addresses the patient's concerns about speech post-surgery.
Summary of other choices:
A: Incorrect. This choice is too definitive and does not acknowledge the possibility of voice restoration through rehabilitation.
B: Incorrect. While the tracheostomy tube may affect speech initially, it does not address the long-term impact of a laryngectomy on speech.
D: Incorrect. While artificial voice devices can help with speech, they do not provide a complete solution for normal speech post-laryngectomy.
In patients who are awake during craniotomy, appropriate statements include:
A. For a temporal lesion, neurosurgeons are likely to require the sitting position.
B. A tracheal tube is likely to be used.
C. A urinary catheter is likely to be inserted.
D. Intraoperative seizures are likely to occur during cortical mapping.
Correct answer:
Awake craniotomy allows functional mapping and patient cooperation. The sitting position is rare due to air embolism risks and is not specific to temporal lesions; supine or lateral positions are standard. A tracheal tube is avoided to maintain airway control via less invasive means (e.g., nasal cannula), as patients must remain responsive. A urinary catheter is routine for longer procedures to manage fluid balance and patient comfort, given immobility and duration. Patient anxiety is common but manageable, not an absolute contraindication. Seizures can occur during cortical mapping due to electrical stimulation, but likely' overstates frequency; they're a risk, not a certainty. The urinary catheter's inclusion reflects practical perioperative care, ensuring monitoring and comfort without interrupting the procedure's focus on brain function preservation.
In which of the following situations would evaluating the ST segment elevation of a patient suffering from a suspected myocardial infarction not be indicated to determine if an infarction exists?
A. When a pre-existing right bundle branch block is present
B. When the patient is hypotensive
C. In the presence of pulmonary edema
D. In the presence of a left bundle branch block
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: When a pre-existing right bundle branch block is present. Evaluating ST segment elevation is not indicated in this situation because a right bundle branch block can mimic ST elevation on an ECG, making it difficult to accurately determine if an infarction exists.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
B: When the patient is hypotensive - Hypotension does not preclude the evaluation of ST segment elevation in suspected myocardial infarction.
C: In the presence of pulmonary edema - Pulmonary edema does not preclude the evaluation of ST segment elevation in suspected myocardial infarction.
D: In the presence of a left bundle branch block - Evaluating ST segment elevation is still indicated in the presence of a left bundle branch block because it can still provide valuable information for diagnosing myocardial infarction.
A nurse cares for a rape victim who was given flunitrazepam (Rohypnol) by the assailant. Which intervention has priority? Monitoring for:
A. Coma
B. Seizures
C. Hypotonia
D. Respiratory depression
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Respiratory depression. Flunitrazepam is a sedative-hypnotic drug that can cause central nervous system depression, leading to respiratory depression, which is life-threatening. Monitoring respiratory status is crucial to prevent respiratory failure.
A: Coma may occur but is a consequence of severe respiratory depression, hence monitoring respiratory status is more critical.
B: Seizures are not a common side effect of flunitrazepam and do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to respiratory depression.
C: Hypotonia (muscle weakness) is a potential side effect but does not require immediate intervention like respiratory depression.
In summary, monitoring for respiratory depression is the priority as it can lead to respiratory failure and death, while the other choices are not as immediately life-threatening.
A client receives education on dietary management for ulcerative colitis from a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. You should increase your intake of high-fiber foods.
B. You should avoid foods containing lactose.
C. You should decrease your intake of dairy products.
D. You should increase your intake of dairy products.
Correct answer:
The correct statement the nurse should include in the teaching is to decrease the intake of dairy products. This is because reducing the intake of dairy products is beneficial in managing symptoms of ulcerative colitis. Dairy products can aggravate symptoms due to their lactose content, thus advising the client to decrease their consumption can help alleviate discomfort and promote better management of the condition.\nChoice A is incorrect because increasing high-fiber foods may worsen symptoms in some individuals with ulcerative colitis.\nChoice B is incorrect as while it is advised to avoid foods containing lactose, this alone does not encompass the full dietary management for ulcerative colitis.\nChoice D is incorrect as increasing the intake of dairy products can exacerbate symptoms in individuals with ulcerative colitis due to their lactose content.
The nurse in charge measures a patient's temperature at 101 degrees F. What is the equivalent centigrade temperature?
A. 36.3 degrees C
B. 38.3 degrees C
C. 40.03 degrees C
D. 38.01 degrees C
Correct answer:
To convert Fahrenheit to Celsius, the formula is (°F - 32) / 1.8. For a temperature of 101°F: subtract 32 (101 - 32 = 69), then divide by 1.8 (69 / 1.8 ≈ 38.33). Rounding to one decimal place, this equals 38.3°C, matching the provided option. This conversion is vital in healthcare settings where Celsius is commonly used, ensuring accurate communication of a patient's condition. A temperature of 38.3°C indicates a fever, which could signal infection or inflammation, guiding the nurse's next steps in care. The other choices are incorrect: 36.3°C is too low (equivalent to about 97.3°F, below normal); 40.03°C is too high (about 104°F); and 38.01°C is slightly off due to rounding errors. Precision in temperature conversion enhances patient monitoring and treatment decisions, making 38.3°C the correct equivalent for 101°F in this clinical context.
The nurse notices that the mother of a 2-year-old boy brings him into the clinic quite frequently for various injuries and suspects there may be some child abuse involved. During an inspection of his mouth, the nurse should look for:
A. Swollen, red tonsils.
B. Ulcerations on the hard palate.
C. Bruising on the buccal mucosa or gums.
D. Small yellow papules along the hard palate.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Bruising on the buccal mucosa or gums. This is because bruising in the oral cavity can be indicative of physical abuse in children. The nurse should look for signs of trauma that may not be easily visible on other parts of the body. Bruising on the buccal mucosa or gums could be a result of forceful feeding, hitting, or physical abuse.
A: Swollen, red tonsils - Typically not associated with child abuse unless there are other signs of trauma.
B: Ulcerations on the hard palate - Unlikely to be a common sign of physical abuse in a child.
D: Small yellow papules along the hard palate - Not typically associated with physical abuse; more likely related to other oral health issues.
In summary, bruising on the buccal mucosa or gums is the most relevant sign to look for in this scenario as it could indicate possible child abuse.
After insertion of a cheat tube for a pneumothorax, a client becomes hypotensive with neck vein distention, tracheal shift, absent breath sounds, and diaphoresis. Nurse Amanda suspects a tension pneumothorax has occurred. What cause of tension pneumothorax should the nurse check for?
A. Infection of the lung.
B. Kinked or obstructed chest tube
C. Excessive water in the water-seal chamber
D. Excessive chest tube drainage
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Kinked or obstructed chest tube. When a client with a pneumothorax develops hypotension, neck vein distention, tracheal shift, absent breath sounds, and diaphoresis, it indicates a tension pneumothorax. In this case, the chest tube may be kinked or obstructed, leading to a buildup of pressure in the pleural space. This increased pressure causes a shift in the mediastinum and impairs venous return, resulting in hypotension and other signs of tension pneumothorax. Checking for a kinked or obstructed chest tube is crucial to relieve the pressure and prevent further complications.
Other choices are incorrect:
A: Infection of the lung does not typically lead to the rapid onset of symptoms seen in tension pneumothorax.
C: Excessive water in the water-seal chamber would not cause the described signs of tension pneumothorax.
D: Ex
A nurse assesses the rectal temperature of a patient who is postoperative following oral surgery. What patient assessment needs to be made before taking this temperature?
A. Pain assessment
B. Pulse rate
C. Platelet count
D. Fecal occult blood test
Correct answer:
Postoperative patients require careful assessment before rectal temperature measurement due to potential risks. Platelet count is critical because low platelets (thrombocytopenia) increase bleeding risk from rectal trauma, a concern after any surgery, even oral. Pain assessment is important but not specific to rectal contraindications unless related to rectal discomfort, which isn't indicated here. Pulse rate monitoring doesn't directly impact rectal temperature safety unless cardiac issues (e.g., post-MI) are present, which isn't the case. A fecal occult blood test detects bleeding but isn't a pre-measurement necessity. Choice C is correct as it addresses a key contraindicationâ€â€bleeding riskâ€â€ensuring patient safety. This reflects nursing judgment in evaluating hematologic status before invasive temperature methods, especially post-surgery.
What is the nurse's primary role in promoting health?
A. educating others about health promotion activities
B. avoiding smoking or drinking in public
C. being a role model for health promotion
D. implementing stress reduction activities
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because the nurse's primary role in promoting health is to educate others about health promotion activities. Nurses play a crucial role in providing knowledge and guidance to individuals, families, and communities on how to maintain and improve their health. By educating others, nurses empower them to make informed decisions about their health.
Option B, avoiding smoking or drinking in public, is incorrect as it focuses on the nurse's personal behavior rather than their role in promoting health to others. Option C, being a role model for health promotion, is important but not the primary role of a nurse in promoting health. Option D, implementing stress reduction activities, is also important but falls under the broader scope of health promotion, which includes education about various aspects of health beyond stress reduction.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 72 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
