You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
If a cell has 92 chromosomes at the beginning of mitosis, determine the number of chromatids at
A. 23 chromatids
B. 92 chromatids
C. 46 chromatids
D. 184 chromatids
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — 46 chromatids
The correct answer is C: 46 chromatids. At the beginning of mitosis, each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids. Since the cell has 92 chromosomes, the total number of chromatids will be 92 chromosomes x 2 chromatids per chromosome = 184 chromatids. However, this number represents the total number of chromatids, not the number at the beginning of mitosis. At the beginning of mitosis, the sister chromatids are still attached, so we need to divide the total number of chromatids by 2 to get the number at the beginning of mitosis, which is 184 chromatids / 2 = 92 chromatids. Therefore, the correct answer is 46 chromatids, as each chromosome consists of two chromatids at the beginning of mitosis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not consider the concept of sister chromatids in chromosomes during mitosis.
Question 2
Which patient is a candidate for internal monitoring with an intrauterine pressure catheter?
A. Obese patient whose contractions are 3 to 6 minutes apart, lasting 20 to 50 seconds
B. Gravida 1, para 0, whose contractions are 2 to 3 minutes apart, lasting 60 seconds
C. Multigravida whose contractions are 2 minutes apart, lasting 60 to 70 seconds
D. Gravida 2, para 1, in latent phase whose contractions are irregular and mild
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Gravida 1, para 0, whose contractions are 2 to 3 minutes apart, lasting 60 seconds
The correct answer is B because the patient is a primigravida (first pregnancy) with frequent contractions (2 to 3 minutes apart, lasting 60 seconds), which indicates active labor and the need for internal monitoring with an intrauterine pressure catheter. This level of contraction frequency and duration suggests progression towards the active phase of labor, where accurate monitoring is crucial for the well-being of both the mother and the baby.
Choice A is incorrect because the contractions are not as frequent or long-lasting as in active labor. Choice C is incorrect because although the contractions are frequent, the duration is longer than typical active labor. Choice D is incorrect because the contractions are irregular and mild, indicating the latent phase of labor where internal monitoring is not necessary.
Question 3
Which model is most useful in examining the cause of disease in an individual, based upon external factors?
A. Health-Illness Continuum
B. High-Level Wellness Model
C. Health Belief Model
D. The Agent-Host-Environment Model
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — The Agent-Host-Environment Model
The Agent-Host-Environment Model excels in analyzing disease causation by external factors, viewing illness as an interaction between an agent (e.g., bacteria), host (individual), and environment (living conditions). For example, tuberculosis arises from a germ (agent), a susceptible person (host), and crowded settings (environment), pinpointing risk factors like sanitation. The Health-Illness Continuum tracks health status, not causes. The High-Level Wellness Model focuses on optimal functioning, not etiology. The Health Belief Model explains behavior, not disease origins. This model's triad framework aids nurses in identifying external triggers like pollution or vectors tailoring prevention, making it uniquely effective for dissecting environmental contributions to illness, a critical tool in public health nursing.
Question 4
Electrician electrocuted, exit wound on foot, blood in urine, initial management?: "Immediate angiography"
A. "Aggressive fluid infusion"
B. "Intravenous pyelography"
C. "Debridement of necrotic muscle"
D. "Admission to the ICU for observation"
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — "Aggressive fluid infusion"
The correct answer is A: "Aggressive fluid infusion." In this scenario, the electrician likely suffered electrical burns leading to muscle breakdown and subsequent release of myoglobin into the bloodstream, causing renal damage. Aggressive fluid infusion helps prevent myoglobin-induced acute kidney injury by maintaining high urine output to flush out myoglobin. This initial management is crucial to prevent further kidney damage.
Choice B: "Intravenous pyelography" is incorrect as it is a diagnostic imaging test for the urinary system, not a treatment for acute kidney injury. Choice C: "Debridement of necrotic muscle" is not the immediate priority and can be considered later if necessary. Choice D: "Admission to the ICU for observation" is not sufficient as immediate intervention is needed to prevent renal damage.
Question 5
The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client with emphysema. What should the nurse emphasize to prevent complications?
A. Limit physical activity to conserve energy.
B. Avoid exposure to respiratory irritants.
C. Use a humidifier in the home.
D. Increase sodium intake to maintain hydration.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Avoid exposure to respiratory irritants.
The correct answer is B: Avoid exposure to respiratory irritants. Emphasizing this point is crucial in preventing complications for a client with emphysema because irritants such as smoke, pollution, and dust can worsen respiratory symptoms and exacerbate the condition. By avoiding these triggers, the client can reduce the risk of flare-ups and complications.
Other choices are incorrect because:
A: Limiting physical activity may lead to deconditioning and weaken respiratory muscles, which can worsen the client's condition.
C: Using a humidifier can help with dryness, but it does not address the primary concern of avoiding irritants that can exacerbate emphysema.
D: Increasing sodium intake is not directly related to preventing complications in emphysema and can even lead to fluid retention and worsen symptoms.
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Question 6
The LPN is caring for a client who has been placed in restraints. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?
A. Ensure that the client's circulation is checked every hour.
B. Document the reason for the restraints every 4 hours.
C. Provide range-of-motion exercises every 2 hours.
D. Release the restraints every 2 hours for repositioning.
Correct answer:
The most crucial action for the nurse to take when caring for a client in restraints is to release the restraints every 2 hours for repositioning. This practice helps prevent complications such as pressure ulcers and impaired circulation by ensuring adequate blood flow and preventing skin breakdown. Checking the client's circulation every hour (Choice A) is important, but releasing the restraints for repositioning takes precedence to prevent serious complications. While documenting the reason for restraints (Choice B) is essential for legal and documentation purposes, it is not as critical as providing necessary care to the client's physical well-being. Providing range-of-motion exercises (Choice C) is beneficial for maintaining mobility but may not address the immediate risks associated with prolonged restraint use.
A 75-year-old woman who has a history of diabetes and peripheral vascular disease has been trying to remove a corn on the bottom of her foot with a pair of scissors. The nurse will encourage her to stop trying to remove the corn with scissors because:
A. The woman could be at increased risk for infection and lesions because of her chronic disease.
B. With her diabetes, she has increased circulation to her foot, and it could cause severe bleeding.
C. She is 75 years old and is unable to see; consequently, she places herself at greater risk for self-injury with the scissors.
D. With her peripheral vascular disease, her range of motion is limited and she may not be able to reach the corn safely.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A. The woman's history of diabetes and peripheral vascular disease puts her at increased risk for infection and lesions when trying to remove the corn with scissors. Diabetes can impair wound healing and increase the risk of infection. Peripheral vascular disease can lead to poor circulation, further complicating wound healing. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific risks associated with the woman's chronic conditions. Choice B is incorrect as diabetes often causes poor circulation, not increased circulation. Choice C is incorrect as age and visual impairment are not the primary reasons for discouraging the use of scissors. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on range of motion rather than the specific risks related to diabetes and peripheral vascular disease.
A nurse manager states, 'I cannot stand all these conflicts in my department. Nothing good can come out of it.' Which indicates the best reason the manager's statement is untrue
A. Conflict can stimulate more people to become involved in a situation, thus creating more innovative solutions to the issue
B. When people are in conflict, they tend to work harder just to avoid the conflicting situation
C. Groups in conflict spur competition, which is always beneficial to the units from which the groups emerged
D. When there is conflict in an organization, people are more open to discussion, thus conflict can open the lines of communication
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because conflict can lead to increased involvement and diverse perspectives, fostering creativity and innovative solutions. Conflict can encourage individuals to think critically, challenge assumptions, and explore alternative approaches. This can ultimately lead to improved problem-solving and decision-making.
Choice B is incorrect because working harder to avoid conflict may not necessarily result in better outcomes or resolution of the underlying issues. Choice C is incorrect because while competition can drive performance, excessive conflict within a group can lead to negative consequences such as decreased collaboration and increased animosity. Choice D is incorrect because conflict can sometimes hinder open communication and lead to further misunderstandings if not managed effectively.
The nurse is caring for a patient in the operating suite. Which outcome will be most appropriate for this patient at the end of the intraoperative phase?
A. The patient will be free of burns at the grounding pad.
B. The patient will be free of nausea and vomiting.
C. The patient will be free of infection.
D. The patient will be free of pain.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: The patient will be free of burns at the grounding pad. This outcome is crucial in the intraoperative phase to ensure the patient's safety. Burns at the grounding pad can occur due to improper equipment setup or malfunction, potentially leading to serious complications. Ensuring the patient is free of burns at the grounding pad indicates that proper safety measures were taken during the surgery.
Summary:
- Choice B (The patient will be free of nausea and vomiting) is related to postoperative care, not intraoperative phase.
- Choice C (The patient will be free of infection) is important but not specific to the intraoperative phase.
- Choice D (The patient will be free of pain) is also important but not as critical as preventing burns at the grounding pad during the intraoperative phase.
She decides to have a decentralized staffing system. Which of the following is an advantage of this system of staffing?
A. greater control of activities
B. Conserves time
C. Compatible with computerization
D. Promotes better interpersonal relationship
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Promotes better interpersonal relationship. A decentralized staffing system promotes better interpersonal relationships as it allows for closer interaction and communication between team members and managers. This enhances collaboration, trust, and teamwork within the organization.
A: Greater control of activities - This is not an advantage of a decentralized staffing system as it can lead to less centralized control and coordination.
B: Conserves time - While decentralization can lead to quicker decision-making, it may not necessarily conserve time overall as it can also lead to potential inefficiencies.
C: Compatible with computerization - This is not a direct advantage of a decentralized staffing system, as computerization can be implemented in both centralized and decentralized systems.
The appropriate nursing care delivery model for critically ill patients is:
A. Functional
B. Case assignment
C. Team
D. Primary
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Primary. In the primary nursing care delivery model, a designated nurse takes responsibility for coordinating all aspects of care for a specific group of patients, ensuring continuity and personalized care. This model is most suitable for critically ill patients as it promotes individualized attention, consistent monitoring, and streamlined communication among the healthcare team. Functional care delivery model (A) divides tasks among different nursing staff, potentially leading to fragmented care. Case assignment model (B) assigns a nurse to each patient but lacks the continuity and oversight provided by the primary model. The team nursing model (C) involves multiple healthcare providers sharing responsibilities, which may not be ideal for critically ill patients requiring focused attention.
A 25 year old male is brought to the hospital after sustaining partial and full thickness burns involving 60% of his body surface are His right arm and hand are severely burne There are obvious full thickness burns of the entire right hand and a circumferential burn of the right arm. Pulses are absent at the right wrist and are not detected by doppler examination. The first step in management of the right upper extremity should be:
A. "Fasciotomy"
B. "Angiography"
C. "Escharotomy"
D. "Heparinization"
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: "Escharotomy." In this scenario, the patient has a circumferential burn on the right arm with absent pulses at the wrist, indicating compartment syndrome. Escharotomy involves making incisions through the eschar (burned tissue) to relieve pressure and restore circulation. This is the initial step to prevent tissue damage and potential limb loss.
Choice A, "Fasciotomy," is a more invasive procedure that involves cutting through the fascia to relieve pressure. It is typically done if escharotomy is ineffective.
Choice B, "Angiography," is used to visualize blood vessels and is not the initial management for compartment syndrome in burns.
Choice D, "Heparinization," is not indicated in this situation as the primary concern is restoring circulation and preventing further tissue damage.
Youarethenurseassessinga28-year-oldwomanwhohaspresentedtotheemergencydepartmentwith r
A. Younotebruisingtothepatientsupperarmthatcorrespondtotheoutline
B. Thepatientmakesminimaleyecontactduring u theassessment.Howmightyoubestinquireaboutthebruising?
C. Isanyonephysicallyhurtingyou?
D. Tell me about your relationships.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: "Is anyone physically hurting you?" because it directly addresses the possibility of domestic violence, which could be the underlying cause of the bruising. By asking this question, the nurse acknowledges the potential sensitive issue and opens up a conversation for the patient to disclose any abuse.
A: Noting bruising without further investigation may miss the opportunity to address the root cause.
B: Making assumptions about the patient's behavior can be misleading and not as effective as directly inquiring about abuse.
D: Asking about relationships is too broad and may not lead to uncovering potential abuse.
In summary, option C is correct as it directly addresses the potential domestic violence issue, while the other choices do not focus on this crucial aspect of the assessment.
A 75-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes has recently been placed on glipizide (Glucotrol), 10 mg daily. She asks the nurse when the best time would be to take this medication. What is the nurse’s best response?
A. Take this medication in the morning, 30 minutes before breakfast.
B. Take this medication in the evening with a snack.
C. This medication needs to be taken after the midday meal.
D. It does not matter what time of day you take this medication.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Take this medication in the morning, 30 minutes before breakfast. Glipizide is a sulfonylurea medication that helps lower blood sugar levels by stimulating the pancreas to release more insulin. Taking it in the morning, before breakfast, helps synchronize the peak action of the medication with the body's natural rise in blood sugar levels in the morning. This timing helps prevent hypoglycemia during the night and early morning hours when the risk is higher.
Choice B is incorrect because taking the medication in the evening may increase the risk of hypoglycemia during the night. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take the medication after the midday meal. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of glipizide intake does matter for optimal effectiveness and safety.
The patient has presented to the ambulatory surgery center to have a colonoscopy. The patient is scheduled to receive moderate sedation (conscious sedation) during the procedure. Moderate sedation is used routinely for procedures that require
A. Performance on an outpatient basis
B. A depressed level of consciousness
C. Loss of sensation in an area of the body
D. The patient to be immobile
Correct answer:
Moderate sedation, or conscious sedation, is used for procedures like colonoscopies, inducing a depressed level of consciousness where patients remain responsive but relaxed, reducing anxiety and discomfort without full anesthesia. It's not tied to outpatient status many outpatient procedures use local or no sedation. Loss of sensation requires regional anesthesia, like a nerve block, not moderate sedation, which preserves sensation. Immobility is achieved with general anesthesia, not this lighter state where patients can still move. This sedation level allows quick recovery, ideal for ambulatory settings, while maintaining airway control. The nurse's understanding ensures proper monitoring for oversedation risks, aligning with safe administration to achieve the intended conscious yet calm state during the procedure.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 98 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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