You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
The nurse is assessing a 3-year-old child whose mother complains that he is listless and has been having trouble swallowing. Which of the following findings would suggest the child has a brain tumor?
A. Observation reveals nystagmus and head tilt
B. Vital signs show blood pressure measures 120/80
C. Examination shows temperature of 38.5°C and headache
D. Observation reveals a cough and labored breathing
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Observation reveals nystagmus and head tilt
Brain tumors in young children often cause neurological signs from mass effect or increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Nystagmus (involuntary eye movement) and head tilt suggest cerebellar or brainstem involvement, common in pediatric brain tumors like medulloblastoma, disrupting coordination and posture key findings in a listless child with swallowing issues (possibly cranial nerve dysfunction). Blood pressure of 120/80 is elevated but lacks widened pulse pressure typical of ICP; it's non-specific without context. Fever and headache might indicate meningitis, not a tumor, unless paired with focal signs. Cough and labored breathing point to respiratory issues, not neurological ones. Nurses noting nystagmus and tilt prompt urgent imaging, critical in pediatric oncology for diagnosing brain tumors early and preventing further deterioration.
Question 2
A patient taking hormonal contraceptives will soon turn 35 years of age. She is moderately obese and has smoked for 15 years. Which of the following is most important?
A. Begin an exercise regime.
B. Begin smoking cessation.
C. Begin daily aspirin therapy.
D. Begin taking a loop diuretic to aid weight loss.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Begin smoking cessation.
For a woman over 35 taking hormonal contraceptives, smoking significantly heightens the risk of thromboembolic events, like deep vein thrombosis or stroke, due to estrogen's effect on clotting factors, compounded by tobacco's vascular impact. Obesity adds to this cardiovascular burden, making smoking cessation the priority intervention. Exercise, while beneficial, doesn't directly mitigate clotting risk. Aspirin therapy might reduce clot risk but isn't standard without specific indications, and loop diuretics address fluid, not obesity's core issue. Stopping smoking reduces the synergistic danger with hormonal contraceptives, directly addressing the most pressing threat to her health. This focus reflects clinical guidelines emphasizing smoking as a critical modifiable factor in this scenario, enhancing safety as she continues contraception.
Question 3
While obtaining a health history from the mother of a 1-year-old child, the nurse notices that the baby has had a bottle in his mouth the entire time. The mother states, "It makes a great pacifier." The best response by the nurse would be:
A. "You're right. Bottles make very good pacifiers."
B. "Using a bottle as a pacifier is better for the teeth than thumb-sucking."
C. "It's okay to use a bottle as long as it contains milk and not juice."
D. "Prolonged use of a bottle can increase the risk for tooth decay and ear infections."
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — "Prolonged use of a bottle can increase the risk for tooth decay and ear infections."
Correct Answer - D: "Prolonged use of a bottle can increase the risk for tooth decay and ear infections."
Rationale:
1. Prolonged bottle use can lead to tooth decay due to exposure to sugars in milk or formula.
2. The constant sucking can also cause ear infections by pushing bacteria into the Eustachian tubes.
3. It is important for the nurse to educate the mother on these risks to promote the child's health.
Summary of Other Choices:
A: Incorrect. Encouraging the mother that bottles make good pacifiers does not address the potential health risks associated with prolonged bottle use.
B: Incorrect. While it's true that bottle use may be better for teeth than thumb-sucking, it still poses risks for tooth decay and ear infections.
C: Incorrect. The contents of the bottle do not negate the risks associated with prolonged bottle use.
Question 4
A 28-year-old musician comes to your clinic, complaining of a 'spot' on his penis. He states his partner noticed it 2 days ago and it hasn't gone away. He says it doesn't hurt. He has had no burning with urination and no pain during intercourse. He has had several partners in the last year and uses condoms occasionally. His past medical history consists of nongonococcal urethritis from Chlamydia and prostatitis. He denies any surgeries. He smokes two packs of cigarettes a day, drinks a case of beer a week, and smokes marijuana and occasionally crack. He has injected IV drugs before but not in the last few years. He is single and currently unemployed. His mother has rheumatoid arthritis and he doesn't know anything about his father. On examination you see a young man appearing deconditioned but pleasant. His vital signs are unremarkable. On visualization of his penis there is a 6-mm red, oval ulcer with an indurated base just proximal to the corona. There is no prepuce because of neonatal circumcision. On palpation the ulcer is nontender. In the inguinal region there is nontender lymphadenopathy. What disorder of the penis is most likely the diagnosis?
A. Condylomata acuminata
B. Genital herpes
C. Syphilitic chancre
D. Penile carcinoma
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Syphilitic chancre
The correct answer is C: Syphilitic chancre. The key features supporting this diagnosis are a painless, indurated ulcer on the penis with no associated symptoms like burning urination or pain during intercourse. The presence of nontender lymphadenopathy in the inguinal region is also suggestive of syphilis. The risk factors of multiple sexual partners, previous history of nongonococcal urethritis, and IV drug use increase the likelihood of a sexually transmitted infection like syphilis. Condylomata acuminata (choice A) presents as warty growths, not ulcers. Genital herpes (choice B) typically presents with painful vesicles or ulcers. Penile carcinoma (choice D) usually presents with changes in the skin texture or color, not a single ulcer. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis based on the presentation and risk factors is syphilitic chancre.
Question 5
The nurse enters the room to give a prescribed medication but the patient is inside the bathroom. What should the nurse do?
A. Leave the medication at the bedside and leave the room.
B. After a few minutes, return to that patient's room and do not leave until the patient takes the medication.
C. Instruct the patient to take the medication and leave it at the bedside.
D. Wait for the patient to return to bed and just leave the medication at the bedside.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — After a few minutes, return to that patient's room and do not leave until the patient takes the medication.
Returning after a few minutes and staying until the patient takes the medication ensures safe administration, adhering to the 'Five Rights' right patient, drug, dose, route, and time. The nurse verifies ingestion, preventing errors like missed doses or misuse, and documents accurately. Leaving medication unattended risks it being lost, taken incorrectly, or accessed by others, violating safety protocols. Instructing without supervision assumes compliance but lacks confirmation, potentially falsifying records if the dose isn't taken. Waiting briefly then leaving it bedside still neglects oversight. Returning and remaining present balances respect for the patient's privacy with accountability, ensuring the medication reaches its intended recipient at the prescribed time, critical for treatment efficacy and legal standards in nursing practice.
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Question 6
The nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed as having a fetal death. The nurse is aware of the possible causes of intrapartum fetal death. How can the nurse explain the potential causes of IPFD to the patient?
A. We will always find the cause of fetal death with an autopsy.
B. Infection is never a cause of fetal death.
C. Umbilical cord entanglement can cause fetal death.
D. Congenital anomalies cause growth restriction, not fetal death.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Umbilical cord entanglement can cause fetal death. Umbilical cord entanglement can lead to decreased blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus, resulting in fetal demise. This explanation is accurate and relevant to the causes of intrapartum fetal death.
A: We will always find the cause of fetal death with an autopsy. This statement is not always true, as not all cases of fetal death can be determined conclusively by autopsy.
B: Infection is never a cause of fetal death. This statement is incorrect as infections can indeed be a cause of fetal death, such as maternal infections transmitted to the fetus.
D: Congenital anomalies cause growth restriction, not fetal death. While congenital anomalies can lead to growth restriction, they can also directly result in fetal death, making this statement incorrect.
A 75-year-old lady is listed for an anterior resection to treat a cancer in the descending hemicolon. She has never previously been in hospital. She gives no history of shortness of breath or angina, but admits that she does not take part in strenuous activity. Apart from painkillers, she takes no medications. Appropriate statements regarding preoperative testing include:
A. Resting echocardiography is a useful test of her functional capacity.
B. Coronary angiography is indicated.
C. Cardiopulmonary exercise testing is a useful test of functional capacity.
D. Brain natriuretic peptide level is a useful test that indicates heart failure.
Correct answer:
Preoperative assessment evaluates surgical risk. Resting echocardiography assesses cardiac structure, not functional capacity, which requires dynamic testing. Coronary angiography is invasive and unwarranted without symptoms like angina or ischemia evidence. Cardiopulmonary exercise testing (CPET) measures aerobic capacity (e.g., VOâ‚‚ peak), directly assessing functional reserve for surgical stress ideal for this asymptomatic but inactive patient. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) indicates heart failure if elevated but doesn't test capacity; it's a biomarker, not a stress test. Dobutamine stress echocardiography detects ischemia, useful but less comprehensive than CPET for overall fitness. CPET's ability to quantify cardiopulmonary reserve makes it the most appropriate choice for optimizing perioperative management in this elderly patient.
The practitioner, entering the examining room to meet a patient for the first time, states: "Hello, I'm M.M., and I'm here to gather some information from you and to perform your examination. This will take about 30 minutes. D.D. is a student working with me. If it's all right with you, she will remain during the examination." Which of the following must be added to cover all aspects of the interview contract?
A. A statement regarding confidentiality, patient costs, and the expectations of each person
B. The purpose of the interview and the role of the interviewer
C. Time and place of the interview and a confidentiality statement
D. An explicit purpose of the interview and a description of the physical examination, including diagnostic studies
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because it covers all essential aspects of the interview contract. Firstly, mentioning confidentiality ensures patient privacy. Secondly, addressing patient costs sets clear expectations. Lastly, explaining the role of each person involved establishes transparency.
Choice B is incorrect as it only covers the purpose of the interview and the role of the interviewer, missing important elements like confidentiality and patient costs.
Choice C is incorrect as it lacks information on patient costs and the expectations of each person, focusing solely on the time, place, and confidentiality statement.
Choice D is incorrect as it only includes the purpose of the interview and a description of the physical examination, missing crucial aspects like confidentiality, patient costs, and roles of individuals involved.
Large amounts of leukocytes in the seminal fluid suggest a clinical finding of
A. inadequate fructose.
B. inflammation of the testes.
C. an infection of the genital tract.
D. an obstruction in the vas deferens.
Correct answer:
Large amounts of leukocytes in seminal fluid indicate an infection of the genital tract. Leukocytes are white blood cells that are typically present in response to an infection. In this context, their presence suggests an ongoing inflammatory response to combat the infection. This finding is consistent with an infection in the genital tract, which could be caused by various pathogens. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer.
Choice A (inadequate fructose) is incorrect because leukocytes are not directly related to fructose levels in the seminal fluid. Choice B (inflammation of the testes) is incorrect as the presence of leukocytes in seminal fluid does not necessarily indicate testicular inflammation. Choice D (obstruction in the vas deferens) is also incorrect as leukocytes are not typically associated with vas deferens obstruction.
A chronic inflammatory disease of the large intestine or colon is called
A. Malabsorption
B. Fecal impaction
C. Crohn's disease
D. Ulcerative colitis
Correct answer:
Rationale for the correct answer (D): Ulcerative colitis is a chronic inflammatory disease specifically affecting the large intestine or colon. It is characterized by inflammation and ulcers in the lining of the colon, leading to symptoms like abdominal pain, diarrhea, and rectal bleeding. This distinguishes it from Crohn's disease, which can affect any part of the digestive tract.
Summary of incorrect choices:
A: Malabsorption refers to the inability to absorb nutrients properly and is not specific to the large intestine.
B: Fecal impaction is a condition where a hard mass of stool gets stuck in the colon, causing blockage, but it is not a chronic inflammatory disease.
C: Crohn's disease is also a chronic inflammatory condition, but it can affect any part of the digestive tract, not just the large intestine like ulcerative colitis.
Which of the following is a normal age-related change of the integumentary system?
A. Amount of fat and collagen increases.
B. Pressure injuries occur.
C. Hair thickens.
D. Skin becomes thinner and more fragile.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because as we age, the skin undergoes natural changes such as thinning and becoming more fragile. This is due to a decrease in collagen production and a reduction in the skin's ability to retain moisture. Thinning skin makes the elderly more susceptible to injuries and skin tears.
A: Amount of fat and collagen increases - This is incorrect as aging leads to a decrease in collagen production and loss of fat in the skin.
B: Pressure injuries occur - While pressure injuries can be common in older adults, it is not a normal age-related change of the integumentary system.
C: Hair thickens - Hair thinning or loss is more common with age, not thickening.
In summary, the normal age-related change of the integumentary system is skin becoming thinner and more fragile due to decreased collagen and moisture retention.
A 50-year-old man with a history of heavy alcohol use presents with abdominal pain, jaundice, and ascites. His serum bilirubin is elevated, and liver function tests show elevated AST and ALT. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Chronic pancreatitis
B. Cirrhosis
C. Hepatitis
D. Gallstones
Correct answer:
The most likely diagnosis for a 50-year-old man with a history of heavy alcohol use presenting with abdominal pain, jaundice, and ascites, along with elevated serum bilirubin, AST, and ALT, is cirrhosis. Cirrhosis is a chronic condition characterized by liver damage and scarring, commonly caused by long-term alcohol abuse. The elevated liver function tests and jaundice are indicative of liver dysfunction, while ascites is a common complication of cirrhosis due to portal hypertension. Chronic pancreatitis (choice A) typically presents with pancreatic enzyme abnormalities, not liver dysfunction. Hepatitis (choice C) may present with elevated liver enzymes but is less likely in a patient with a history of heavy alcohol use. Gallstones (choice D) can cause jaundice but are less likely to be the primary cause of liver dysfunction in this case.
One way for a nursing assistant to determine whether to perform a procedure or not is to
A. Perform all procedures even if he has no training in the procedures
B. Perform a procedure if he has forgotten how to do it because he will know the steps once he starts
C. Perform a procedure if it is not in his job description but he knows how to do it
D. Perform a procedure if it is within his scope of practice
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Perform a procedure if it is within his scope of practice. This is the correct choice because performing procedures within one's scope of practice ensures that the nursing assistant has the necessary training, skills, and legal authorization to safely carry out the task. It aligns with professional standards and guidelines, promoting patient safety and quality care.
A, B, and C are incorrect choices because they do not consider the importance of following legal and ethical boundaries in healthcare. Choice A suggests performing procedures without training, which can lead to harm to the patient. Choice B implies a trial-and-error approach, which is unsafe and unprofessional. Choice C disregards the importance of job descriptions and legal limitations, potentially risking patient safety and violating regulations.
A. Failure of the heart to adequately pump blood to the body.
B. Long-term inability of the heart to meet metabolic demands required to maintain homeostasis.
C. Prolonged enlargement of the left ventricle impacting on the contractility of the muscle.
D. Long term fluid build-up, causing increase in blood volume and reducing the ability of the heart to maintain blood flow.
Correct answer:
Chronic heart failure (CHF) is a syndrome, not a singular defect. Failure to pump adequately describes acute failure but lacks chronicity's scope. CHF is the heart's prolonged inability to meet metabolic demands for oxygen and nutrients, disrupting homeostasis per Farrell (2017) encompassing systolic (reduced ejection) and diastolic (impaired filling) dysfunction. Left ventricular enlargement may occur (e.g., dilated cardiomyopathy), but it's a cause or result, not the definition; contractility varies. Fluid buildup (congestion) is a feature, not the essence blood volume rises secondary to neurohormonal activation (e.g., renin-angiotensin system), not as the primary failure. The metabolic demand focus captures CHF's systemic impact fatigue, edema, dyspnea reflecting chronic adaptation failure over structural or fluid-centric descriptions.
The nurse explains that, if muscles are not regularly stretched and contracted, the muscles will become:
A. longer and flexed
B. fibrosed and spastic
C. shorter and less elastic
D. shorter and painful
Correct answer:
Muscles require regular movement to maintain their length and elasticity. Without stretching and contraction, they adapt to a shortened position due to immobility, losing their ability to elongate fully over time. This results in reduced elasticity, making them prone to stiffness and contractures. Longer and flexed muscles would imply active stretching, which doesn't occur without intervention. Fibrosis and spasticity suggest scarring or neurological overactivity, more common in specific conditions like cerebral palsy, not general immobility. Shorter and painful could occur, but pain isn't a universal outcome of disuse shortening and loss of elasticity are the primary physiological changes. This explanation underscores the need for exercise to preserve muscle function, aligning with the natural response of tissues to prolonged inactivity.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 81 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.
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