You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
The nurse is answering a phone call from a pregnant person. The pregnant person informs the nurse she has had several sharp pains in the right lower abdomen this week. What is the priority question the nurse should ask the pregnant person?
A. How many weeks pregnant are you?
B. How much water are you drinking every day?
C. When was your last bowel movement?
D. Are you lactose intolerant?
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — How many weeks pregnant are you?
The correct answer is A: How many weeks pregnant are you? This is the priority question because sharp pains in the right lower abdomen could indicate an ectopic pregnancy or appendicitis, both of which are serious conditions requiring immediate medical attention. Knowing the gestational age will help the nurse determine the likelihood of these complications.
Choice B: How much water are you drinking every day? is not the priority question as it is unlikely to be related to the sharp pains in the right lower abdomen.
Choice C: When was your last bowel movement? is not the priority question as it is not directly related to the sharp pains in the right lower abdomen.
Choice D: Are you lactose intolerant? is not the priority question as it is not likely to be the cause of sharp pains in the right lower abdomen for a pregnant person.
Question 2
When teaching a client with a new diagnosis of heart failure about dietary management, which of the following statements should the nurse include?
A. Increase your intake of sodium-rich foods.
B. Decrease your intake of sodium-rich foods.
C. Avoid foods that contain lactose.
D. Increase your intake of dairy products.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Decrease your intake of sodium-rich foods.
The correct answer is to decrease the intake of sodium-rich foods. Sodium restriction is crucial in managing heart failure as it helps to reduce fluid retention and alleviate symptoms. Excessive sodium intake can lead to fluid buildup in the body, worsening heart failure. Therefore, advising the client to decrease sodium-rich foods is essential for their overall health and management of the condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of sodium-rich foods (Choice A) would worsen fluid retention and heart failure symptoms. Avoiding foods that contain lactose (Choice C) is not directly related to heart failure management through sodium restriction. Increasing intake of dairy products (Choice D) may not be suitable for all heart failure patients, especially if they need to limit saturated fats or cholesterol in their diet.
Question 3
The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should be monitored closely to assess for complications?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum calcium
C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
D. Blood glucose
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Blood glucose
The correct answer is D: Blood glucose. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial for clients receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) due to the high glucose content in TPN solutions. TPN delivers essential nutrients, including glucose, directly into the bloodstream. Clients on TPN are at risk of developing hyperglycemia due to the concentrated glucose infusion. Therefore, close monitoring of blood glucose levels is necessary to detect and prevent hyperglycemia-related complications such as osmotic diuresis, hyperosmolarity, and electrolyte imbalances. While serum sodium, serum calcium, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels are important parameters in various clinical scenarios, they are not specifically associated with TPN administration. These values are not the primary indicators to assess for complications in clients receiving TPN.
Question 4
Upon admission, the most appropriate person to check on a patients vital signs would be:
A. RN
B. LPN
C. PCT
D. CNA
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — RN
RN (Registered Nurse), is correct because upon admission, a comprehensive assessment, including vital signs, is typically performed by an RN due to their advanced training and scope of practice. RNs interpret data, identify abnormalities, and develop care plans, making them the most appropriate initial evaluator. LPN (Licensed Practical Nurse), assists with care but often works under RN supervision with a narrower scope. PCT (Patient Care Technician), and CNA (Certified Nursing Assistant), perform basic tasks like taking vital signs but lack the RNs authority to assess and act on findings independently upon admission. Hospital protocols prioritize RNs for initial assessments to ensure accuracy and timely intervention, especially in critical cases. Thus, A is the best choice, reflecting professional standards and patient safety priorities.
Question 5
In which of the following situations would evaluating the ST segment elevation of a patient suffering from a suspected myocardial infarction not be indicated to determine if an infarction exists?
A. When a pre-existing right bundle branch block is present
B. When the patient is hypotensive
C. In the presence of pulmonary edema
D. In the presence of a left bundle branch block
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — When a pre-existing right bundle branch block is present
The correct answer is A: When a pre-existing right bundle branch block is present. ST segment elevation in patients with a right bundle branch block can be misleading as it can mimic ST elevation seen in myocardial infarction. This is due to the altered electrical conduction pathway caused by the block. Evaluating ST segment elevation in such cases may lead to a false diagnosis of infarction.
Summary:
- B: Evaluating ST segment elevation in a hypotensive patient is important as it can indicate the severity of the myocardial infarction.
- C: In the presence of pulmonary edema, evaluating ST segment elevation is crucial to assess the extent of myocardial damage.
- D: Similar to a right bundle branch block, a left bundle branch block can also lead to abnormal ST segment changes, making it necessary to evaluate for myocardial infarction.
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Question 6
A 30 year old male presents with a stab wound to the abdomen. BP is 85/60, HR 130, RR 26 and GCS 14. Neck veins are flat and chest examination is clear with bilateral breath sounds. Optimal resuscitation should include:
A. "Transfusion of FFP and platelets"
B. "Preparation for laparotomy while initiating fluid resuscitation"
C. "Resuscitation with crystalloid and pRBC until base excess is normal"
D. "Fluid resuscitation and angioembolization"
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: "Preparation for laparotomy while initiating fluid resuscitation". In a trauma scenario with hemodynamic instability like this, the priority is to address potential intra-abdominal bleeding with a laparotomy. Fluid resuscitation is crucial to maintain perfusion and stabilize the patient before surgery. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: "Transfusion of FFP and platelets" is not the immediate priority in this scenario as it does not address the source of bleeding.
C: "Resuscitation with crystalloid and pRBC until base excess is normal" is not ideal as it delays definitive treatment and may worsen the patient's condition.
D: "Fluid resuscitation and angioembolization" may be considered in stable patients, but in this case, the patient is hemodynamically unstable and needs immediate surgical intervention.
Good management in staffing nursing units in larger healthcare facilities usually includes all but which one of the following practices:
A. Using a decentralized approach to ensure there is adequate staffing throughout the medical center.
B. Ensuring that fair and uniform staffing and scheduling policies are in place.
C. Using an in-house registry/float pool to assist in covering sick calls, weekend shifts and holidays.
D. Using traveling nurses wisely to fill longer term staff vacancies or leaves of absences.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because using traveling nurses to fill longer term staff vacancies or leaves of absences is not typically considered good management practice for staffing nursing units in larger healthcare facilities.
1. Traveling nurses are usually temporary solutions and may not provide continuity of care.
2. They may lack familiarity with the facility's policies, procedures, and workflow.
3. Relying on traveling nurses for extended periods can be costly and may not address underlying staffing issues.
4. It is more effective to focus on developing a stable and skilled in-house nursing team to ensure consistent quality of care.
In contrast, choices A, B, and C are essential practices for effective staffing management in healthcare facilities, ensuring adequate staffing levels, fair policies, and flexibility in covering shifts.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has Parkinson's disease and is at risk for aspiration. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
A. Encourage the client to eat thin liquids
B. Instruct the client to tilt their head forward when swallowing
C. Give the client large pieces of food
D. Have the client lie down after meals
Correct answer:
The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client with Parkinson's disease at risk for aspiration is to instruct the client to tilt their head forward when swallowing. This action helps protect the airway and reduces the risk of aspiration in clients with impaired swallowing, which is common in Parkinson's disease. Encouraging the client to eat thin liquids (Choice A) can increase the risk of aspiration as they are harder to control during swallowing. Giving the client large pieces of food (Choice C) can also increase the risk of choking and aspiration. Having the client lie down after meals (Choice D) can further increase the risk of aspiration due to the potential for reflux. Therefore, the best action to prevent aspiration in this situation is to instruct the client to tilt their head forward when swallowing.
Which of the following is true of the Joint Commission?
A. It is a for-profit organization.
B. It is a state inspection agency.
C. Membership is mandatory for all skilled nursing facilities.
D. Its goal is to improve the quality and safety of care given in healthcare facilities.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because the Joint Commission's primary goal is to improve the quality and safety of care in healthcare facilities through accreditation and certification programs. This is evident in their standards and guidelines that focus on patient safety, quality improvement, and performance measurement.
A: The Joint Commission is a not-for-profit organization, not a for-profit organization, as it operates as an independent, non-governmental entity.
B: The Joint Commission is not a state inspection agency; it is a private accrediting organization that sets standards for healthcare facilities.
C: Membership with the Joint Commission is voluntary, not mandatory for skilled nursing facilities.
In summary, the Joint Commission's core mission is to enhance healthcare quality and safety, making choice D the correct answer.
When using an open irrigation technique for a client's catheter, what action should the nurse take?
A. Subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client's urine output.
B. Add the amount of irrigant used to the urine output measurement.
C. Measure the amount of irrigant used separately from the urine output.
D. Document the total amount of fluid used for irrigation only.
Correct answer:
The correct action for the nurse to take when using an open irrigation technique for a client's catheter is to subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client's urine output. This subtraction helps accurately assess the client's output by accounting for the volume of irrigant introduced. Choice B is incorrect because adding the irrigant to the urine output measurement would falsely inflate the total output, leading to inaccurate assessment. Choice C is incorrect as measuring the amount of irrigant separately does not provide an accurate assessment of the client's total output as it disregards the irrigant's contribution. Choice D is incorrect as documenting the total fluid used for irrigation only does not differentiate between the irrigant and the client's actual urine output, which is crucial for accurate monitoring and assessment.
According to the Ask the Expert interview with Alison Schure, Public Health Nurse, which of the following was mentioned as one of her roles in the elementary school environment as mentioned in the media file?
A. meetings with principals to create priority goal setting and implement plans
B. identifying students of high social economic status to reduce physical activity
C. diagnosing learning disabilities like receptive, expression, and global aphasia
D. educate school-aged children about the importance of increased food intake
Correct answer:
Rationale:
A is correct because in the interview, Alison Schure mentioned that one of her roles is to meet with principals to set priority goals and implement plans. This aligns with the responsibilities of a Public Health Nurse in an elementary school setting. This role focuses on collaborating with school leadership to promote health and wellness initiatives.
Summary:
B is incorrect because the role of a Public Health Nurse is not to target students based on their socio-economic status.
C is incorrect because diagnosing learning disabilities is typically the responsibility of specialized professionals like psychologists or speech therapists.
D is incorrect because the primary role of a Public Health Nurse is not educating children about food intake, but rather promoting overall health and well-being through various initiatives.
The nurse is caring for clients in a rural health clinic and wants to promote illness prevention. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Provide education about accident prevention
B. Screen all clients for hypertension
C. Refer clients with chronic conditions to a specialist
D. Teach clients with diabetes about a diabetic diet
Correct answer:
In a rural clinic, illness prevention primary prevention aims to stop disease before it starts, critical where access lags. Providing accident prevention education, like safe tractor use or fall risks, targets common rural hazards, reducing injuries proactively. Screening for hypertension is secondary, detecting issues, not preventing them. Referring chronic cases to specialists or teaching diabetic diets is tertiary, managing existing conditions, not averting onset. Accident prevention fits rural needs data shows higher injury rates in such areas empowering clients with knowledge to avoid harm. The nurse's action aligns with nursing's preventive role, addressing environmental and lifestyle risks unique to the setting, enhancing community health by tackling root causes before they escalate, a practical step given limited rural resources.
The nurse is assessing the factors contributing to the well-being of a newly admitted client. Which of the following would the nurse identify as having a positive impact on the individual's mental health?
A. Not needing others for companionship
B. The ability to effectively manage stress
C. A family history of mental illness
D. Striving for total self-reliance
Correct answer:
Individual factors influencing mental health include biologic makeup, autonomy, independence, self-esteem, capacity for growth, vitality, ability to find meaning in life, emotional resilience or hardiness, sense of belonging, reality orientation, and coping or stress management abilities. Interpersonal factors such as intimacy and a balance of separateness and connectedness are both needed for good mental health, and therefore a healthy person would need others for companionship. A family history of mental illness could relate to the biologic makeup of an individual, which may have a negative impact on an individual's mental health, as well as a negative impact on an individual's interpersonal and social/cultural factors of health. Total self-reliance is not possible, and a positive social/cultural factor is access to adequate resources.
A black patient, originally from Haiti, has a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. A colleague tells the nurse, "This patient often looks down and is reluctant to share feelings. However, I've observed the patient spontaneously interacting with other black patients." Select the nurse's best response.
A. "Black patients depend on the church for support. Have you consulted the patient's pastor?"
B. "Encourage the patient to talk in a group setting. It will be less intimidating than one-to-one interaction."
C. "Don't take it personally. Black patients often have a resentful attitude that takes a long time to overcome."
D. "The patient may have difficulty communicating in English. Have you considered using a cultural broker?"
Correct answer:
Step-by-step rationale for why Answer D is correct:
1. Cultural differences: Being from Haiti, the patient may have cultural nuances affecting communication.
2. Language barrier: The patient may have difficulty communicating in English, impacting sharing feelings.
3. Cultural broker: A cultural broker can facilitate communication and understanding between the patient and healthcare providers.
4. Enhancing care: Utilizing a cultural broker can improve patient-nurse communication, trust, and overall care.
Summary:
- Option A: Assumes church dependency without evidence. Not relevant to the communication issue.
- Option B: Group setting may not address the specific communication barriers related to culture and language.
- Option C: Makes unfounded generalizations and could perpetuate biases. Doesn't address the communication issue.
Which of the following is a characteristic of anorexia nervosa?
A. Binge eating followed by purging.
B. Refusal to maintain a healthy weight and an intense fear of gaining weight.
C. Frequent overeating episodes without purging behaviors.
D. Extreme preoccupation with body image and excessive exercise.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because anorexia nervosa involves a refusal to maintain a healthy weight, an intense fear of gaining weight, and a distorted body image. This disorder is characterized by restrictive eating habits leading to significant weight loss. Individuals with anorexia nervosa often perceive themselves as overweight despite being underweight. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they describe characteristics more closely associated with bulimia nervosa, binge eating disorder, and orthorexia, respectively. Binge eating followed by purging (A) is a behavior seen in bulimia nervosa, frequent overeating episodes without purging (C) is typical of binge eating disorder, and extreme preoccupation with body image and excessive exercise (D) may be seen in orthorexia or other eating disorders, but not specifically in anorexia nervosa.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 82 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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