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LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 60

LPN exams · fundamentals

LPN exams fundamentals practice questions set 60

You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.

Five fundamentals questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

A female patient is being discharged after thyroidectomy. After providing the medication teaching. The nurse asks the patient to repeat the instructions. The nurse is performing which professional role?

  1. A. Manager
  2. B. Caregiver
  3. C. Patient advocate
  4. D. Educator
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Educator

By providing medication teaching and confirming understanding through repetition, the nurse acts as an educator. This role involves imparting knowledge, ensuring comprehension, and empowering the patient to manage post-thyroidectomy care, like medication adherence, critical for recovery and preventing complications (e.g., hypothyroidism). Asking the patient to repeat instructions assesses learning, addressing gaps before discharge. As a manager, the nurse coordinates care, not directly teaches. The caregiver role focuses on physical assistance (e.g., wound care), not education. Patient advocacy ensures rights and preferences are upheld, but this scenario emphasizes teaching over advocacy. Education equips the patient for self-care, aligning with nursing's holistic approach, making educator the nurse's primary role here, enhancing health outcomes through informed participation.

Question 2

A 50-year-old woman presents with a complaint of severe headaches that occur in the morning and are associated with nausea and vomiting. She also reports blurred vision. Neurological examination reveals papilledema. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. A. Migraine
  2. B. Cluster headache
  3. C. Tension-type headache
  4. D. Intracranial hypertension
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Intracranial hypertension

The correct answer is D, Intracranial hypertension. This condition is characterized by increased pressure within the skull, leading to symptoms such as morning headaches, nausea, vomiting, blurred vision, and papilledema. The patient's presentation of severe morning headaches with associated symptoms and papilledema is classic for intracranial hypertension. Migraine (A) typically presents with pulsating headaches without neurological signs. Cluster headache (B) is characterized by severe unilateral headaches with autonomic features but not typically associated with papilledema. Tension-type headache (C) is usually bilateral, mild to moderate in intensity, and not associated with papilledema. In summary, the patient's symptoms and signs are most consistent with intracranial hypertension due to the presence of morning headaches, nausea, vomiting, blurred vision, and papilledema.

Question 3

A client who is being treated for chronic kidney disease complains to the health-care provider that he does not like the food available to him while hospitalized. The health-care provider insists that the client strictly adhere to the diet plan. What action can be expected if the client uses the defense mechanism of displacement?

  1. A. The client assertively confronts the health-care provider.
  2. B. The client insists on being discharged and goes for a long, brisk walk.
  3. C. The client snaps at the nurse and criticizes the nursing care provided.
  4. D. The client hides his anger by explaining the logical reasoning for the diet to his spouse.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — The client snaps at the nurse and criticizes the nursing care provided.

The correct answer is C. Displacement is a defense mechanism where negative feelings are redirected from the original source to a less threatening target. In this scenario, the client's anger towards the health-care provider is redirected towards the nurse, resulting in snapping and criticism. This behavior is a classic example of displacement. A: Assertively confronting the health-care provider does not align with displacement. It would involve directly addressing the source of conflict. B: Insisting on discharge and going for a walk is more of a flight response rather than displacement. D: Hiding anger by explaining the diet to the spouse is not displacement; it's more about rationalizing the situation. In summary, choice C is the correct answer as it reflects the use of displacement as a defense mechanism in response to the client's frustration with the diet plan.

Question 4

Using the UNICEF Socio-Ecological Model, which statement is an example of a community health center working at the organizational level to promote health care?

  1. A. Teaching a client how to self-administer insulin injections
  2. B. Assisting a new mother with breastfeeding
  3. C. Treating all clients regardless of their ability to pay
  4. D. Lobbying to ensure health care for transgender clients
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Treating all clients regardless of their ability to pay

The correct answer is C because treating all clients regardless of their ability to pay aligns with the organizational level of the UNICEF Socio-Ecological Model. This demonstrates a commitment to providing equitable access to healthcare services within the community health center. By offering care regardless of financial resources, the center addresses social determinants of health, promotes health equity, and contributes to overall community well-being. Choice A, teaching a client to self-administer insulin injections, is an example of an individual-level intervention. Choice B, assisting a new mother with breastfeeding, is a behavioral-level intervention. Choice D, lobbying for health care for transgender clients, pertains to policy-level advocacy. These choices do not directly address organizational-level efforts to promote health care within a community health center.

Question 5

When teaching a patient with binge-purge bulimia, the nurse should give priority to information about:

  1. A. Self-monitoring of daily food and fluid intake.
  2. B. Establishing the desired daily weight gain.
  3. C. Symptoms of hypokalemia.
  4. D. Self-esteem maintenance
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Symptoms of hypokalemia.

The correct answer is C: Symptoms of hypokalemia. This is the priority because individuals with binge-purge bulimia often have electrolyte imbalances, including hypokalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac complications. Educating the patient on recognizing symptoms of hypokalemia, such as weakness, fatigue, and irregular heartbeats, is crucial for early intervention. A: Self-monitoring of daily food and fluid intake is important but not the priority when dealing with potential life-threatening complications like hypokalemia. B: Establishing the desired daily weight gain is not appropriate for individuals with binge-purge bulimia as the focus should be on addressing the underlying psychological issues rather than weight gain. D: Self-esteem maintenance is important in the long term but does not take precedence over addressing immediate health risks such as hypokalemia.

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Question 6

To establish a diagnosis of shock, which is true?

  1. A. "Systolic blood pressure must be below 90mmHg"
  2. B. "The presence of a closed head injury should be excluded"
  3. C. "Clinical evidence of inadequate organ perfusion must be present"
  4. D. "The patient must fail to respond to intravenous fluid infusion"
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Question 7

A patient preparing for surgery has moderate anxiety and is unable to understand preoperative information. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

  1. A. Reassure the patient that all nurses are skilled in providing postoperative care.
  2. B. Present the information again in a calm manner using simple language.
  3. C. Tell the patient that staff is prepared to promote recovery.
  4. D. Encourage the patient to express feelings to family.
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Question 8

A nurse is positioning a sterile drape to extend the working area when performing a urinary catheterization. Which of the following is an appropriate technique for this procedure?

  1. A. Use sterile gloves to handle the entire drape surface.
  2. B. Fold the lower edges of the drape over the sterile-gloved hands.
  3. C. Touch only the outer two inches of the drape when not wearing sterile gloves.
  4. D. When reaching over the drape do not allow clothing to touch the drape.
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Question 9

The nurse is describing the generic name of a drug to a patient. Which statement best represents the meaning of the generic name?

  1. A. This is the proprietary name of the drug given by the manufacturer that is trademarked
  2. B. This is the common name by which most everyone refers to the drug
  3. C. This is the name given to the drug based on the chemical structure
  4. D. This is a non-proprietary name given by the United States Adopted Name Council
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Question 10

The nurse is assessing a patient's cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve). Which action is most appropriate?

  1. A. Ask the patient to shrug their shoulders against resistance.
  2. B. Assess the patient's ability to chew and detect light touch on the face.
  3. C. Check for gag reflex and swallowing.
  4. D. Evaluate the patient's hearing ability.
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Question 11

A client has been given a diagnosis of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which statement made by the client does the nurse recognize as the bargaining stage of grief?

  1. A. I hate my partner for giving me this disease I will die from!
  2. B. If I don't do intravenous (IV) drugs anymore, God won't let me die.
  3. C. I am going to support groups and learn more about the disease.
  4. D. Can you please re-draw the test results, I think they may be wrong?
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Question 12

In a patient of diabetes mellitus maintained on insulin therapy, administration of the following drug can impair glycaemia control:

  1. A. Prednisolone
  2. B. Prazosin
  3. C. Paracetamol
  4. D. Phenytoin
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Question 13

The following factors are to be considered in the use of chemical agent EXCEPT

  1. A. Stability during storage
  2. B. Efficiency of the chemical agent
  3. C. Time taken to act
  4. D. The colour of the chemical agent
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Question 14

A nurse believes a new mouth care procedure (MCP) is causing more mouth problems than it

  1. A. Which of the following must be present for the nurse to go to administration with confidence that the MCP is causing problems? (Select all that apply.)
  2. B. A plausible explanation of how the new MCP could cause harm
  3. C. A strong feeling that the MCP is the cause
  4. D. Consistently seeing mouth inflammation in many of the patients who have received the MCP
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Question 15

A nurse is preparing to perform an admission assessment for a client who reports abdominal pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  1. A. Perform deep palpation at the end of the admission assessment
  2. B. Auscultate the client's abdomen before palpation
  3. C. Begin palpation of the abdomen at the site of pain
  4. D. Assess the client's bowel sounds using the bell of the stethoscope
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About these LPN exams fundamentals questions

LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 60 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

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The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

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