You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
What is the role of the nurse in the care of a patient with a pressure ulcer?
A. Clean the wound and apply a protective dressing
B. Assess the wound and reposition the patient frequently
C. Apply pressure to the ulcer and monitor for signs of healing
D. Provide pain relief and administer antibiotics as needed
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Assess the wound and reposition the patient frequently
The correct answer is B: Assess the wound and reposition the patient frequently. When caring for a patient with a pressure ulcer, it is crucial for the nurse to assess the wound regularly to monitor its progress and prevent complications. Additionally, repositioning the patient frequently helps to relieve pressure on the affected area, prevent further damage, and promote healing. Choice A is incorrect because while cleaning the wound is important, applying a protective dressing is not the primary role of the nurse in managing a pressure ulcer. Choice C is incorrect as applying pressure to the ulcer is harmful, and monitoring for signs of healing should not involve applying pressure. Choice D is incorrect as providing pain relief and administering antibiotics may be necessary but are not the primary interventions for managing a pressure ulcer.
Question 2
A nurses assessment reveals that a client with COPD may be experiencing bronchospasm. What assessment finding would suggest that the patient is experiencing bronchospasm?
A. Fine or coarse crackles on auscultation
B. Wheezes or diminished breath sounds on auscultation
C. Reduced respiratory rate or lethargy
D. Slow, deliberate respirations
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Wheezes or diminished breath sounds on auscultation
Bronchospasm in COPD, a sudden airway narrowing from smooth muscle contraction, is suggested by wheezes or diminished breath sounds on auscultation. Wheezing a high-pitched sound from turbulent airflow through constricted passages is classic, while diminished sounds reflect reduced air entry, both audible in acute exacerbation. Crackles (fine or coarse) indicate fluid or mucus, typical in pneumonia or heart failure, not bronchospasm's dry obstruction. Reduced respiratory rate or lethargy suggests severe hypoxia or fatigue, not specific to bronchospasm COPD patients often show tachypnea. Slow, deliberate respirations may be compensatory but aren't diagnostic. The nurse's detection of wheezes or diminished sounds confirmed by stethoscope prompts bronchodilator use, aligning with COPD exacerbation management to reverse this reversible component.
Question 3
When pathogens enter the bloodstream and move throughout the body, a _____ has occurred.
A. Systemic infection
B. Localized infection
C. Healthcare-associated infection
D. Cross-infection
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Systemic infection
The correct answer is A: Systemic infection. When pathogens enter the bloodstream and spread throughout the body, it results in a systemic infection affecting multiple organs or systems. This type of infection can lead to severe illness and requires immediate medical attention.
Choice B: Localized infection is incorrect because it refers to an infection that is confined to a specific area of the body, not spreading through the bloodstream.
Choice C: Healthcare-associated infection is incorrect as it relates to infections acquired in healthcare settings, not specifically referring to the spread of pathogens through the bloodstream.
Choice D: Cross-infection is incorrect because it typically refers to the transmission of infections between individuals, not the movement of pathogens through the bloodstream causing a systemic infection.
Question 4
The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled to undergo a surgical procedure. The nurse is completing an assessment and reviews the patient's laboratory tests and allergies. In which perioperative nursing phase would this work be completed?
A. Perioperative
B. Preoperative
C. Intraoperative
D. Postoperative
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Preoperative
Reviewing laboratory tests and allergies occurs in the preoperative phase, before surgery begins, to establish a baseline and identify risks like drug reactions or abnormal clotting. This preparation ensures the surgical team can tailor anesthesia and interventions, reducing complications. Perioperative spans all phases pre, intra, and post but isn't specific to this task. Intraoperative care happens during surgery in the operating suite, focusing on the procedure, not initial assessments. Postoperative care, in settings like the PACU, monitors recovery, not pre-surgery data. By completing this in the preoperative phase, the nurse mitigates physiological risks, such as bleeding from unrecognized coagulopathy or anaphylaxis from allergens, aligning with safety protocols to optimize surgical success and patient stability throughout the process.
Question 5
A difference in opinion has arisen regarding methods to care for clients who are on mechanical ventilators. The nurse manager asks a group of nurses to meet and review evidence-based practice related to this client care situation. Each nurse volunteers to gather data prior to the next meeting. This is an example of which type of problem solving
A. Negotiation
B. Collaboration
C. Compromise
D. Forcing
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Collaboration
The correct answer is Collaboration (B). In this scenario, the nurse manager is encouraging a group of nurses to work together to review evidence-based practice, indicating a collaborative approach to problem-solving. Collaboration involves individuals working together to reach a common goal through sharing ideas, expertise, and resources. This promotes a multifaceted approach and fosters teamwork.
A: Negotiation involves finding a middle ground between conflicting parties, which is not the primary focus in this scenario.
C: Compromise involves reaching an agreement by making concessions, which may not be necessary in this context where evidence-based practice is the main goal.
D: Forcing is a coercive approach where one party imposes their decision on others, which is not evident in this situation where mutual data gathering is voluntary.
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Question 6
A nurse is using analytic epidemiology when conducting a research project. Which of the following projects is the nurse most likely completing?
A. Reviewing communicable disease statistics
B. Determining factors contributing to childhood obesity
C. Analyzing locations where family violence is increasing
D. Documenting population characteristics for healthy older citizens
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because analytic epidemiology focuses on determining factors contributing to the occurrence of diseases or health outcomes in populations. In this case, the nurse is likely completing a research project on childhood obesity, which involves analyzing various factors contributing to its prevalence.
A, reviewing communicable disease statistics, falls under descriptive epidemiology which involves summarizing and presenting data on disease patterns.
C, analyzing locations where family violence is increasing, is more related to social epidemiology which focuses on the social determinants of health and disease distribution.
D, documenting population characteristics for healthy older citizens, is more aligned with descriptive epidemiology as it involves describing the characteristics of a specific population group.
The nurse is assessing a patient's skin during an office visit. What part of the hand and technique should be used to best assess the patient's skin temperature?
A. Fingertips; they are more sensitive to small changes in temperature.
B. Dorsal surface of the hand; the skin is thinner on this surface than on the palms.
C. Ulnar portion of the hand; increased blood supply in this area enhances temperature sensitivity.
D. Palmar surface of the hand; this surface is the most sensitive to temperature variations because of its increased nerve supply in this area.
Correct answer:
Step 1: The correct answer is B: Dorsal surface of the hand; the skin is thinner on this surface than on the palms.
Step 2: The dorsal surface of the hand has thinner skin, allowing for better sensitivity to temperature changes.
Step 3: Thinner skin on the dorsal surface allows for more accurate assessment of subtle temperature variations.
Step 4: Fingertips (choice A) are more sensitive to texture, not temperature. Ulnar portion (choice C) does not have enhanced temperature sensitivity. Palmar surface (choice D) is not the most sensitive to temperature variations.
Summary: Choice B is correct because the dorsal surface of the hand offers better temperature sensitivity due to its thinner skin compared to other parts of the hand. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not provide the optimal location for assessing skin temperature.
Which of the following types of study should the nurse researcher choose if the goal is to identify the long-term benefits and risks of a particular nursing intervention for senior citizens living in the community?
A. Cross-sectional study
B. Ecological study
C. Clinical trial
D. Retrospective analysis
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Clinical trial. In this scenario, a clinical trial is the most appropriate study design to identify the long-term benefits and risks of a nursing intervention. Clinical trials involve the systematic study of interventions in human subjects to evaluate their effects on health outcomes. By conducting a clinical trial, the nurse researcher can control variables, monitor participants over an extended period, and assess the intervention's impact on senior citizens living in the community.
Cross-sectional studies (A) are snapshots in time and do not provide information on long-term outcomes. Ecological studies (B) analyze population-level data and may not offer individual-level insights. Retrospective analysis (D) involves looking back at historical data and may not capture real-time long-term effects of interventions.
When performing a peripheral vascular assessment on a patient, the nurse is unable to palpate the ulnar pulses. The patient's skin is warm and capillary refill time is normal. Next, the nurse should:
A. Check for the presence of claudication.
B. Refer the individual for further evaluation.
C. Consider this finding as normal, and proceed with the peripheral vascular evaluation.
D. Ask the patient if he or she has experienced any unusual cramping or tingling in the arm.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because the inability to palpate ulnar pulses in a patient with warm skin and normal capillary refill time is considered a normal variation. Ulnar pulses may be less prominent and harder to palpate compared to other pulses. Proceeding with the peripheral vascular evaluation is appropriate as this finding alone does not indicate any abnormalities or conditions that require immediate intervention. Checking for claudication (Choice A) is not necessary as the absence of ulnar pulses does not correlate with claudication. Referring the individual for further evaluation (Choice B) is premature and not warranted based on the information given. Asking about unusual cramping or tingling in the arm (Choice D) is not necessary at this point as the absence of ulnar pulses in this context is not indicative of any specific symptoms.
A nurse is evaluating the diagnostic study data of a patient with suspected cystic fibrosis (CF). Which of the following test results is associated with a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis?
A. Elevated sweat chloride concentration
B. Presence of protein in the urine
C. Positive phenylketonuria
D. Malignancy on lung biopsy
Correct answer:
Cystic fibrosis (CF) diagnosis relies on elevated sweat chloride concentration, typically >60 mmol/L, from a sweat test. CFTR gene mutations impair chloride transport, increasing salt in sweat glands a hallmark of CF alongside thick mucus in organs like lungs and pancreas. Proteinuria indicates kidney issues, unrelated to CF's ion channel defect. Positive phenylketonuria (PKU) reflects a metabolic disorder of phenylalanine, distinct from CF's respiratory-gastrointestinal focus. Lung biopsy malignancy suggests cancer, not CF, which causes bronchiectasis or infection, not tumors. The nurse's evaluation of high sweat chloride confirms CF's pathophysiology chloride retention driving viscous secretions guiding genetic testing (e.g., CFTR mutations) and management (e.g., airway clearance), critical for this lifelong condition's early intervention.
If an adult patient is experiencing the signs and symptoms of a myocardial infarction with perfusing arrhythmias, which of the following pre-hospital interventions will help to reduce the patient's cardiac preload and afterload?
A. The intravenous administration of 2-4 mg of morphine per a medical-control physician's order
B. The administration of various medications and dosages to control the specific dysrhythmias such as procainamide, atropine, verapamil, and others
C. The administration of sublingual nitroglycerin therapy
D. The administration of high-flow oxygen therapy (15 liters per minute) via a non-rebreather mask
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: The intravenous administration of 2-4 mg of morphine per a medical-control physician's order. Morphine is commonly used in myocardial infarction to reduce cardiac preload and afterload by dilating blood vessels, reducing workload on the heart. This helps improve blood flow to the heart muscle.
Choice B is incorrect because medications like procainamide, atropine, and verapamil are used to control specific dysrhythmias, not specifically to reduce preload and afterload.
Choice C is incorrect as sublingual nitroglycerin therapy primarily works by dilating coronary arteries to improve blood flow to the heart, rather than specifically reducing preload and afterload.
Choice D is incorrect as high-flow oxygen therapy helps to increase oxygen delivery to tissues but does not directly reduce preload and afterload.
A nurse is caring for a patient who is recovering from surgery. The patient is experiencing hypothermia. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Administer warming measures.
B. Administer oxygen therapy.
C. Reposition the patient.
D. Administer antipyretics.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Administer warming measures. The priority nursing action for a patient experiencing hypothermia is to prevent further heat loss and actively rewarm the patient to restore normal body temperature. This is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and impaired immune function. Administering warming measures, such as using warming blankets, heating pads, warm IV fluids, and adjusting room temperature, helps to increase the patient's core body temperature. Administering oxygen therapy (B) may be necessary for other conditions but is not the priority in this scenario. Repositioning the patient (C) may help with comfort and circulation but does not address the underlying issue of hypothermia. Administering antipyretics (D) is used to reduce fever, not hypothermia, and would not be effective in this case.
A primipara patient who is 12 weeks gestation is being scheduled for an abdominal ultrasound. The client asks the nurse why she needs this test. What is the nurse’s best response?
A. This test is to determine the position of the fetus.
B. This test is to determine if there is enough amniotic fluid.
C. This test is to determine how many weeks gestation you are.
D. This test is to determine fetal breathing movements.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: This test is to determine how many weeks gestation you are. At 12 weeks gestation, an ultrasound is commonly performed to accurately determine the gestational age of the fetus. This is important for monitoring fetal development and ensuring proper prenatal care.
A: This test is to determine the position of the fetus - Incorrect. The position of the fetus is usually determined in later stages of pregnancy and not the primary objective of an early pregnancy ultrasound.
B: This test is to determine if there is enough amniotic fluid - Incorrect. Amniotic fluid levels are typically assessed in later stages of pregnancy, not at 12 weeks gestation.
D: This test is to determine fetal breathing movements - Incorrect. Fetal breathing movements are typically observed in the third trimester, not at 12 weeks gestation.
A group of nurses is participating in a community health fair and is engaged in primary prevention activities. Which activities would these nurses be leading?
A. Family planning services
B. Accident prevention education
C. Heart-healthy nutrition services
D. Skin cancer screening
Correct answer:
Primary prevention aims to promote health and stop disease before it starts, a key nursing role at health fairs. Family planning services educate on contraception, preventing unintended pregnancies a proactive health step. Accident prevention education, like teaching helmet use, averts injuries, targeting safety before incidents. Heart-healthy nutrition services promote diets reducing cardiovascular risk, fostering wellness pre-disease. Skin cancer screening, though vital, is secondary prevention, detecting issues early, not preventing onset. Rehabilitation for back pain is tertiary, managing existing conditions. These primary activities planning, safety, nutrition empower communities with knowledge and habits to sidestep illness, aligning with nursing's preventive focus, leveraging education to build health resilience before crises emerge.
Which would be the best initial approach for a nurse to select when managing the care of an individual with two children who works full-time and has been abused by a partner?
A. Teach the individual how to avoid provoking the abuser.
B. Assist the individual in filing a police report describing the abuse.
C. Help the individual to identify needs in order to best obtain support.
D. Facilitate the individual's move into a safe house located near the current workplace.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Help the individual to identify needs in order to best obtain support. This is the best initial approach because it focuses on understanding the individual's specific needs and circumstances before taking any further action. By identifying needs, the nurse can create a tailored plan to provide appropriate support and resources.
Option A is incorrect because teaching the individual to avoid provoking the abuser places the responsibility on the victim rather than addressing the root cause of the abuse. Option B, filing a police report, may not be the best initial step as it may not take into consideration the individual's safety concerns or emotional well-being. Option D, moving the individual to a safe house, may not be feasible or desired by the individual without first understanding their needs and preferences.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 80 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
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