LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 110

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LPN exams fundamentals practice questions set 110

You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.

Five fundamentals questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

The nurse is planning an immunization campaign targeting the children of migrant farm workers in the community. Which data should the nurse review before exploring solution options when developing this program plan?

  1. A. Uncertain risks.
  2. B. Potential outcomes.
  3. C. Priority of solutions.
  4. D. Target population dat
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Target population dat

The correct answer is D because reviewing target population data is crucial for planning an immunization campaign. This data helps the nurse understand the specific needs, demographics, and health status of the children of migrant farm workers. By analyzing this data, the nurse can tailor the campaign to address the unique challenges and barriers this population may face. A: Uncertain risks - This is not the most critical data to review initially as it may not provide specific information necessary for planning the campaign. B: Potential outcomes - While important to consider later in the planning process, it is not as essential as understanding the target population data. C: Priority of solutions - This is premature to determine without first reviewing the target population data to inform the solutions.

Question 2

Identify the main features of a public health problem

  1. A. Affects a significant portion of the population, requires collective action
  2. B. Only affects certain communities, requires government intervention
  3. C. Threatens individual health but not societal resources
  4. D. Focuses on emergency healthcare responses
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Affects a significant portion of the population, requires collective action

Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. A public health problem affects a significant portion of the population, making it a widespread issue. 2. Collective action is necessary to address public health problems due to their large scale. 3. Public health problems require community-wide interventions to prevent and control the issue. 4. By impacting a large population, public health problems have far-reaching effects on societal well-being. 5. Therefore, option A is correct as it encompasses the key features of a public health problem. Summary: Option B is incorrect as public health problems are not limited to specific communities. Option C is incorrect as public health problems have implications on societal resources. Option D is incorrect as public health issues go beyond emergency healthcare responses.

Question 3

Choose the best description of the esophagus.

  1. A. Nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium; relatively unspecialized lamina propria; submucosa with scattered mucous glands
  2. B. Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium; relatively unspecialized lamina propria; submucosa with scattered serous glands
  3. C. Nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium; lamina propria with numerous lymph nodules; submucosa with scattered mucous glands
  4. D. Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium; lamina propria with numerous lymph nodules; are submucosa with scattered mucous glands
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium; relatively unspecialized lamina propria; submucosa with scattered mucous glands

The correct answer is A because the esophagus is lined with nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium, which provides protection against abrasion and friction from food boluses. The relatively unspecialized lamina propria supports the epithelium and allows for nutrient and waste exchange. The submucosa contains scattered mucous glands that secrete mucus to aid in swallowing. Choice B is incorrect because the esophagus does not have keratinized epithelium, and it does not contain serous glands in the submucosa. Choice C is incorrect because although the esophagus has nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium, it does not typically have lymph nodules in the lamina propria. Choice D is incorrect because the esophagus does not have keratinized epithelium or lymph nodules in the lamina propria.

Question 4

A patient, unsure of the need for surgery, asks the nurse, 'What should I do?' What answer by the nurse is based on advocacy?

  1. A. If I were you, I sure would not have this surgical procedure.
  2. B. Gosh, I don't know what I would do if I were you.
  3. C. Tell me more about what makes you think you don't want surgery.
  4. D. Let me talk to your doctor and I will get back to you as soon as I can.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Tell me more about what makes you think you don't want surgery.

The correct answer is C because it demonstrates advocacy by encouraging the patient to express their concerns and preferences. By asking the patient to elaborate on their reasons for not wanting surgery, the nurse is actively listening and supporting the patient's autonomy in decision-making. This approach helps the nurse better understand the patient's perspective and provide more personalized care. Choice A is incorrect as it imposes the nurse's personal opinion on the patient, which is not advocating for the patient's autonomy. Choice B does not provide any guidance or support to the patient, failing to advocate for the patient's needs. Choice D shifts the responsibility to the doctor without actively engaging with the patient, missing the opportunity to advocate for the patient's voice and concerns.

Question 5

A nurse expects to find which manifestations in the male patient who has both Chlamydia and gonorrhea?

  1. A. Painful urination and purulent urethral discharge
  2. B. A single, firm painless open sore on the shaft of the penis
  3. C. Red superficial vesicles on the shaft of the penis
  4. D. A single or a cluster of wartlike growth in the anal-rectal area
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Painful urination and purulent urethral discharge

The correct answer is A because painful urination and purulent urethral discharge are classic manifestations of both Chlamydia and gonorrhea in male patients. Painful urination, known as dysuria, is a common symptom of these sexually transmitted infections due to inflammation of the urethra. Purulent urethral discharge is also typical and results from the infection of the urethral mucosa. Option B is incorrect as a single, firm, painless open sore on the shaft of the penis is a classic presentation of syphilis, not Chlamydia or gonorrhea. Option C is incorrect as red superficial vesicles on the shaft of the penis are characteristic of genital herpes. Option D is incorrect as a single or a cluster of wartlike growth in the anal-rectal area is typical of genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV).

Keep going past these 15 questions

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Question 6

What processes are fundamental to the “hydrological cycle?”

  1. A. Coagulation and sedimentation
  2. B. Filtration and disinfection
  3. C. Evaporation and precipitation
  4. D. Chlorination and fluorination
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 7

The nurse teaches a client with diabetes to perform daily foot inspections to check for skin breakdown. This teaching is an example of which level of prevention?

  1. A. Primary
  2. B. Secondary
  3. C. Tertiary
  4. D. Chronic
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 8

What is the primary purpose of repositioning a patient who is immobile?

  1. A. To prevent pressure ulcers
  2. B. To promote joint flexibility
  3. C. To increase muscle strength
  4. D. To improve respiratory function
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 9

The nurse is providing care for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which intervention is most appropriate to include in the care plan?

  1. A. Instruct the client to use pursed-lip breathing
  2. B. Recommend a high-fat, low-carbohydrate diet
  3. C. Limit physical activity to prevent shortness of breath
  4. D. Encourage the client to drink large amounts of fluids
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 10

Which phase of the ovarian cycle is dominated by follicle growth?

  1. A. Luteal phase
  2. B. Follicular phase
  3. C. Secretory phase
  4. D. Proliferative phase
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 11

A patient diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder is receiving cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which of the following should the nurse reinforce as an important goal of CBT?

  1. A. To avoid stress by limiting exposure to anxiety-provoking situations.
  2. B. To gain insight into the unconscious causes of anxiety.
  3. C. To identify and change negative thought patterns that contribute to anxiety.
  4. D. To accept that anxiety is an inevitable part of life and develop coping mechanisms.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 12

A patient has limited mobility due to a recent surgery. What intervention can help prevent complications related to immobility?

  1. A. Avoiding hydration to minimize bathroom visits
  2. B. Encouraging regular range-of-motion exercises
  3. C. Keeping the patient in a supine position at all times
  4. D. Minimizing communication to conserve energy
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 13

A client with gestational diabetes has just delivered a 10 lb, 2 oz (4601 g) neonate at 39 weeks' gestation. Which nursing intervention would be the priority in caring for the infant?

  1. A. Prepare to administer insulin to the neonate
  2. B. Teach the mother about the nutritional needs of the neonate
  3. C. Feed the infant a D50W solution
  4. D. Obtain a serum neonatal glucose level
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 14

When caring for a client with diabetes insipidus (DI), it is most important for the nurse to include frequent assessment for which conditions in the client's plan of care?

  1. A. Dry mucous membranes, hypotension
  2. B. Decreased appetite, headache
  3. C. Nausea and vomiting, muscle weakness
  4. D. Elevated blood pressure, petechiae
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 15

In the Romanow Report, the Royal Commission on the Future of Health Care in Canada (2002), included a need to shift emphasis in health and health care by addressing all of the following issues EXCEPT:

  1. A. Home Care
  2. B. Acute Care
  3. C. Primary Health Care Reform
  4. D. Palliative Care
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

About these LPN exams fundamentals questions

LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 110 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.

The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

Keep going past these 15 questions

Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.