LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 114
LPN exams · fundamentals
LPN exams fundamentals practice questionsset 114
You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A patient with acute shortness of breath is admitted to the hospital. Which action should the nurse take during the initial assessment of the patient?
A. Ask the patient to lie down for complete a full physical assessment.
B. Complete the health history and check for allergies before treatment.
C. Briefly ask specific questions about this episode of respiratory distress.
D. Delay the physical assessment to first complete pulmonary function tests.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Briefly ask specific questions about this episode of respiratory distress.
The correct answer is C because during an acute episode of respiratory distress, it is essential to quickly gather specific information about the current situation. This allows the nurse to assess the severity of the issue, identify potential causes, and provide immediate interventions. Asking specific questions about the episode helps in determining the onset, triggers, associated symptoms, and any previous similar episodes. This information guides the nurse in prioritizing care and initiating appropriate interventions promptly.
Choice A is incorrect because asking the patient to lie down for a full physical assessment is not appropriate during acute respiratory distress as it delays crucial information gathering. Choice B is incorrect as completing the health history and checking for allergies can be done after addressing the immediate respiratory distress. Choice D is incorrect because delaying the physical assessment for pulmonary function tests is not indicated in the acute management of respiratory distress.
Question 2
After having an argument with a spouse, which defense mechanism is the patient exhibiting when becoming verbally abusive toward the nurse?
A. Denial.
B. Projection.
C. Sublimation.
D. Displacement.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Displacement.
The correct answer is D: Displacement. Displacement is the defense mechanism where emotions or impulses are redirected from the original target to a less threatening target. In this scenario, the patient is displacing their anger from their spouse onto the nurse. This is evident by the patient becoming verbally abusive towards the nurse after the argument with their spouse.
A: Denial is the defense mechanism where individuals refuse to accept reality. This is not applicable in this situation as the patient is not denying the argument with their spouse.
B: Projection is the defense mechanism where individuals attribute their own unacceptable thoughts or feelings onto someone else. This is not the case here as the patient is not attributing their behavior to the nurse.
C: Sublimation is the defense mechanism where individuals channel their emotions into more socially acceptable behaviors. This is not relevant in this context as the patient is not channeling their emotions into a constructive outlet.
Question 3
What is the rationale for conducting discharge planning?
A. to ensure the best possible care in the acute care setting
B. to provide a means of documenting nursing care
C. to enlist family members in providing home care
D. to ensure patient and family needs are met consistently
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — to ensure patient and family needs are met consistently
The correct answer is D because discharge planning aims to ensure that the patient and their family's needs are consistently met post-discharge. This process involves assessing the patient's health status, identifying resources for continued care, and creating a plan to support the patient's transition from the healthcare facility to the home environment. By addressing the physical, emotional, and social needs of the patient and family, healthcare providers can enhance continuity of care, reduce readmission rates, and improve overall patient outcomes.
Choice A is incorrect because discharge planning focuses on the post-acute care setting, not the acute care setting. Choice B is incorrect as documenting nursing care is part of the overall patient care process but not the primary rationale for discharge planning. Choice C is incorrect as discharge planning involves assessing available resources and support systems, which may or may not involve family members providing home care.
Question 4
Which of the following statements is true of osteoarthritis?
A. Jaw and neck are usually affected.
B. Pain and stiffness increase in cold or damp weather.
C. Antibiotics are usually the first type of medication to treat osteoarthritis.
D. Residents will not be able to perform any ADLs if they have osteoarthritis.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Pain and stiffness increase in cold or damp weather.
The correct answer is B: Pain and stiffness increase in cold or damp weather. This is true because osteoarthritis is a condition where the cartilage in joints deteriorates, causing pain and stiffness. Cold or damp weather can exacerbate these symptoms due to changes in barometric pressure and temperature affecting joint fluid viscosity.
A: Jaw and neck are usually affected - This is incorrect because osteoarthritis commonly affects weight-bearing joints like the knees and hips, not typically the jaw and neck.
C: Antibiotics are usually the first type of medication to treat osteoarthritis - This is incorrect because antibiotics are not used to treat osteoarthritis, which is a degenerative joint condition, not an infection.
D: Residents will not be able to perform any ADLs if they have osteoarthritis - This is incorrect because with proper management, individuals with osteoarthritis can still perform activities of daily living (ADLs) with modifications and support.
Question 5
You are on-scene with an adult patient exhibiting unusual activity and appears to be intoxicated. He is anxious and hyperactive. His heart rate and respirations are fast, but his blood pressure remains within normal range for his age. The patient denies alcohol or drug consumption but reports he has diabetes. His blood glucose level is found to be 54 milligrams per deciliter. How would hypoglycemia cause the patient to present with the above findings?
A. The low blood sugar levels stimulate the sympathetic nervous system to trigger the release of epinephrine into the bloodstream to promote liver glycogenolysis
B. Low blood sugar levels mimic alcohol intoxication in the brain because of elevated insulin levels in the bloodstream
C. The elevated heart rate and respirations stimulate the adipose tissue to increase glucose and fatty acid uptake in an attempt to correct the blood glucose level
D. The heart rate and respirations increase in an attempt to promote the natural production and release of glucagon by the alpha cells in the pancreas
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — The low blood sugar levels stimulate the sympathetic nervous system to trigger the release of epinephrine into the bloodstream to promote liver glycogenolysis
The correct answer is A because hypoglycemia triggers a physiological response known as the sympathoadrenal response. When blood sugar levels drop, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, leading to the release of epinephrine from the adrenal glands. Epinephrine promotes liver glycogenolysis, which is the breakdown of stored glycogen into glucose, thereby increasing blood sugar levels. This process helps to counteract the effects of hypoglycemia and provide energy to the body.
The other choices are incorrect because:
B: Elevated insulin levels would not mimic alcohol intoxication; instead, hypoglycemia causes neuroglycopenic symptoms due to inadequate glucose supply to the brain.
C: Adipose tissue does not play a significant role in correcting hypoglycemia through glucose uptake; it is primarily the liver that releases glucose in response to low blood sugar levels.
D: Glucagon is released by the pancreas to raise blood sugar levels in response to
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Question 6
A client is receiving digoxin therapy. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
A. Liver function
B. Serum electrolytes
C. Blood pressure
D. All of the above
Correct answer:
When a client is receiving digoxin therapy, it is crucial for the nurse to monitor liver function, serum electrolytes (especially potassium levels), and blood pressure. Digoxin is known to affect the heart's electrical activity and can lead to toxic effects if not managed properly. Monitoring liver function helps to assess the drug's metabolism and excretion. Checking serum electrolytes, especially potassium, is essential because digoxin toxicity can be exacerbated by electrolyte imbalances, particularly hypokalemia. Monitoring blood pressure is necessary because digoxin can influence cardiac contractility and heart rate, potentially affecting blood pressure. Therefore, monitoring all these parameters is vital to ensure the client's safety and therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because monitoring only one or two of these parameters may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the client's response to digoxin therapy.
Your adult hemodialysis patient is in cardiac arrest one hour after completing a dialysis treatment. He is found to be apneic and asystolic with adequate CPR in progress. Which of the following should be administered during the resuscitation attempt?
A. Sodium bicarbonate and magnesium sulfate
B. Amiodarone and magnesium sulfate
C. Sodium bicarbonate and calcium chloride
D. Potassium and dopamine
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Sodium bicarbonate and calcium chloride. During cardiac arrest, the priority is to correct metabolic acidosis and provide adequate calcium for cardiac function. Sodium bicarbonate helps in correcting metabolic acidosis, while calcium chloride supports cardiac contractility.
A: Sodium bicarbonate and magnesium sulfate - Magnesium sulfate is not indicated during cardiac arrest, and sodium bicarbonate alone may not address the calcium needs for cardiac function.
B: Amiodarone and magnesium sulfate - Amiodarone is used for ventricular arrhythmias, not for asystole, and magnesium sulfate is not the priority in this scenario.
D: Potassium and dopamine - Potassium can exacerbate the situation, and dopamine is not recommended as a first-line drug during cardiac arrest.
In summary, the correct answer provides the necessary interventions to address metabolic acidosis and support cardiac function during the resuscitation attempt.
A nurse cares for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who appears thin and disheveled. Which question would the nurse ask first?
A. “Do you have a strong support system?â€
B. “What do you understand about your disease?â€
C. “Do you experience shortness of breath with basic activities?â€
D. “What medications are you prescribed to take each day?â€
Correct answer:
The correct question to ask first is "Do you experience shortness of breath with basic activities?" because it directly assesses the client's current health status related to COPD, which is essential for immediate care. By prioritizing this question, the nurse can quickly evaluate the severity of the client's symptoms and determine the need for urgent intervention or adjustment of the care plan. This information is crucial for addressing the client's immediate respiratory needs and ensuring their safety.
Choice A is incorrect because assessing the client's support system is important but not as urgent as evaluating their respiratory status. Choice B is also incorrect as understanding the disease is important but not as time-sensitive as assessing the client's current symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as knowing the medications the client is prescribed is important for overall care but does not address the immediate need for respiratory assessment.
What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client expressing sadness about losing her breast?
A. Ineffective Individual Coping.
B. Anticipatory Grieving.
C. Knowledge Deficit.
D. Fear.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Anticipatory Grieving. This nursing diagnosis is appropriate because the client is expressing sadness about a potential loss (her breast). Anticipatory Grieving involves experiencing the feelings and behaviors associated with the normal process of grieving before an actual loss occurs. In this case, the client is already grieving the potential loss of her breast, which aligns with the definition of anticipatory grieving.
Incorrect options:
A: Ineffective Individual Coping - This diagnosis is more about the client's ability to cope with stressors or life events, rather than specifically related to grief.
C: Knowledge Deficit - This diagnosis is about a lack of understanding or information, which is not the primary issue in this scenario.
D: Fear - While fear may be a component of the client's emotional response, it does not fully capture the anticipatory grieving process that the client is going through.
Fire safety responses at facilities include the following steps:
A. Using dry towels to block all doorways and stop smoke
B. Encouraging residents and visitors to use the elevators during a fire to escape more quickly
C. Standing upright in a room when trying to escape a fire
D. Using a covering over the mouth and nose to prevent smoke inhalation
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D, using a covering over the mouth and nose to prevent smoke inhalation. This step is crucial during a fire emergency to reduce the risk of inhaling harmful smoke and toxic gases. By covering the mouth and nose with a cloth or mask, one can filter out some of the harmful particles present in the smoke, making it easier to breathe and increasing the chances of escaping safely. This action helps protect the airways and lungs from damage caused by smoke inhalation.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect:
A: Using dry towels to block doorways is not recommended as it can trap smoke and hinder escape routes.
B: Using elevators during a fire can be dangerous as they can malfunction or become engulfed in flames, trapping individuals inside.
C: Standing upright in a room during a fire can lead to increased exposure to smoke and heat, as smoke rises and can quickly fill the room.
To determine how long the nasogastric tube must be to reach the stomach of the patient, the nurse should hold the end of the tube:
A. From the tip of the nose to the base of the neck
B. From the tip of the nose to the middle of the cheek to the xiphoid process
C. From the tip of the nose to the tip of the ear lobe to the xiphoid process
D. Eight to ten inches from the tip of the nose to the sternum
Correct answer:
Rationale for Correct Answer (C):
1. Holding the end of the nasogastric tube from the tip of the nose to the tip of the earlobe ensures proper placement.
2. This measurement aligns with the anatomical landmarks for the correct positioning of the tube into the stomach.
3. The tip of the earlobe to the xiphoid process correlates with the distance required for the tube to reach the stomach accurately.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A. Holding from the tip of the nose to the base of the neck is incorrect as it does not provide the accurate distance to reach the stomach.
B. Holding from the tip of the nose to the middle of the cheek to the xiphoid process is incorrect as it includes an unnecessary measurement of the cheek.
D. Holding eight to ten inches from the tip of the nose to the sternum is incorrect as it does not consider individual variations in anatomy.
Simply put, shock is a state of hypoperfusion due to several different causes. Which one of the following types of shock would be considered distributive shock?
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Anaphylactic shock
D. Toxic shock syndrome
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Anaphylactic shock. Distributive shock is characterized by systemic vasodilation leading to poor perfusion of tissues. In anaphylactic shock, there is widespread vasodilation due to the release of histamine, causing fluid to shift from the blood vessels to the tissues. This results in decreased blood volume in the circulatory system and inadequate perfusion of organs.
A: Hypovolemic shock is characterized by low blood volume, not systemic vasodilation.
B: Cardiogenic shock is due to inadequate pumping of the heart, not systemic vasodilation.
D: Toxic shock syndrome is caused by toxins released by bacteria, not systemic vasodilation.
In summary, anaphylactic shock is the correct answer as it aligns with the characteristic features of distributive shock, while the other choices do not exhibit the same vasodilatory mechanism.
What is the difference between health and wellness?
A. Health is the absence of disease; wellness is a state of physical, mental, and social well-being.
B. Health is a state of physical, mental, and social well-being; wellness has to do with balancing one's life.
C. Health is merely the absence of disease; wellness looks at the whole person.
D. Health and wellness are the same thing.
Correct answer:
Step 1: Health refers to the overall physical, mental, and social well-being of an individual, encompassing more than just the absence of disease.
Step 2: Wellness, on the other hand, is a broader concept that includes health but also focuses on achieving a state of optimal well-being in various aspects of life.
Step 3: Option A correctly distinguishes between health and wellness by stating that health is the absence of disease, while wellness encompasses physical, mental, and social well-being.
Step 4: Options B, C, and D either incorrectly equate health with wellness or provide vague definitions that do not clearly differentiate between the two concepts.
Summary: Option A is correct because it accurately defines health and wellness, while the other choices either conflate the two terms or provide incomplete or inaccurate descriptions.
Nursing assistants should be observant of residents' emotional needs because
A. Nursing assistants let residents know how they should be feeling on a regular basis
B. Compassionate care causes inappropriate relationships with residents
C. Residents sometimes rely on nursing assistants for emotional support
D. Relationships without boundaries are vital in facilities
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because residents in long-term care facilities may rely on nursing assistants for emotional support due to their vulnerability and isolation. Nursing assistants play a crucial role in providing comfort and empathy to residents who may be lonely or experiencing emotional distress. This support helps improve the residents' overall well-being and quality of life.
Choice A is incorrect because nursing assistants should not dictate how residents should feel but rather support their authentic emotions. Choice B is incorrect as it implies that compassionate care leads to inappropriate relationships, which is not true when boundaries are maintained. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests that relationships without boundaries are necessary, which goes against ethical and professional standards in the healthcare setting.
A new nurse reads a client has a wound “healing by second intention†and asks what that means. Which description by the charge nurse is most accurate?
A. “The wound edges have been approximated and stitched together.â€
B. “The wound was stapled together after an infection was cleared up.â€
C. “The wound is an open cavity that will fill in with granulation tissue.â€
D. “The wound was contaminated by debris and can’t be closed at all.â€
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because healing by second intention refers to a wound that is left open to fill in with granulation tissue. This process allows for the wound to heal from the inside out, promoting tissue regeneration.
Explanation:
1. Option A is incorrect because healing by second intention does not involve approximating or stitching wound edges together.
2. Option B is incorrect because stapling a wound after an infection does not necessarily relate to healing by second intention.
3. Option D is incorrect because although the wound may be contaminated, healing by second intention does not mean it cannot be closed at all.
In summary, the correct answer is C because it accurately describes the process of healing by second intention, which involves allowing an open wound to fill in with granulation tissue.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 114 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.
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