LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 115
LPN exams · fundamentals
LPN exams fundamentals practice questionsset 115
You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
An elderly female patient has come to the clinic for a scheduled follow-up appointment. The nurse learns from the patient's daughter that the patient is not following the instructions she received upon discharge from the hospital last month. What is the most likely factor causing the patient not to adhere to her therapeutic regimen?
A. Ethnic background of health care provider
B. Costs of the prescribed regimen
C. Presence of a learning disability
D. Personality of the physician
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Costs of the prescribed regimen
Adherence to therapeutic regimens hinges on multiple variables, with cost often being the most significant barrier, especially for elderly patients on fixed incomes. Medications, supplies, or follow-up visits can strain finances, leading to skipped doses or neglected care, a common issue in chronic illness management. Ethnic background of the provider might influence trust but lacks evidence as a primary adherence factor here, while physician personality affects rapport less directly than practical barriers. A learning disability could impede understanding, but the scenario doesn't suggest cognitive deficits cost is a more universal, immediate obstacle. Studies highlight financial constraints as a top reason for nonadherence, outweighing other variables like education or complexity in this context, making it the nurse's likely focus to explore affordability solutions, ensuring the regimen fits the patient's reality.
Question 2
The ‘gateway hypothesis’ is used to explain why:
A. some drugs are highly addictive (such as nicotine) and others are minimally addictive (such as LSD)
B. the correlation, but not the causal relationship, between early cannabis use and genetic predisposition to schizophrenia
C. people who are addicted to heroin are likely to have previously used cannabis
D. people who take this class have a higher chance of becoming involved in the formulation of public drug policies
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — people who are addicted to heroin are likely to have previously used cannabis
The 'gateway hypothesis' posits that use of certain substances, like cannabis, can lead to the use of more harmful substances, such as heroin. This progression is based on the idea that trying one drug can increase the likelihood of trying others. Choice C is correct because it directly aligns with this hypothesis by stating that individuals who are addicted to heroin often have a history of prior cannabis use. This supports the notion of cannabis serving as a gateway to heroin use.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect:
A: This choice discusses the addictive nature of drugs, which is not directly related to the gateway hypothesis.
B: This choice mentions a correlation between cannabis use and genetic predisposition to schizophrenia, which is not directly connected to the gateway hypothesis.
D: This choice is unrelated to the concept of the gateway hypothesis and discusses a different scenario altogether.
Question 3
A patient on diuretic therapy calls the clinic because he’s had the flu, with “terrible vomiting and diarrhea,†and he has not kept anything down for 2 days. He feels weak and extremely tired. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A. “It’s important to try to stay on your prescribed medication. Try to take it with sips of water.â€
B. “Stop taking the diuretic for a few days, and then restart it when you feel better.â€
C. “You will need an increased dosage of the diuretic because of your illness. Let me speak to the physician.â€
D. “Please come into the clinic for an evaluation to make sure there are no complications.â€
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — “Please come into the clinic for an evaluation to make sure there are no complications.â€
The correct answer is D because the patient's symptoms of vomiting, diarrhea, weakness, and extreme tiredness indicate severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalance, which can be dangerous. The nurse should advise the patient to come into the clinic for evaluation to assess his condition, rehydrate him, and check for any complications. This is crucial as the patient may need intravenous fluids and electrolyte replacement therapy.
Choice A is incorrect because taking the diuretic with sips of water may not be sufficient to address the dehydration and electrolyte imbalance caused by the flu.
Choice B is incorrect because stopping the diuretic abruptly can lead to further electrolyte imbalances and complications.
Choice C is incorrect because increasing the dosage of the diuretic without evaluating the patient's condition could worsen the electrolyte imbalance and dehydration.
Question 4
A gerontologic nurse has observed that patients often fail to adhere to a therapeutic regimen. What strategy should the nurse adopt to best assist an older adult in adhering to a therapeutic regimen involving wound care?
A. Demonstrate a dressing change and allow the patient to practice
B. Provide a detailed pamphlet on a dressing change
C. Verbally instruct the patient how to change a dressing and check for comprehension
D. Delegate the dressing change to a trusted family member
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Demonstrate a dressing change and allow the patient to practice
Older adults often face sensory or cognitive declines, complicating adherence to wound care regimens. Demonstrating a dressing change and allowing practice addresses this by engaging visual, tactile, and kinesthetic learning, reinforcing skills through repetition crucial for mastering tasks like sterile technique or bandage application. Pamphlets assume literacy and fine vision, often impaired in aging, while verbal instructions alone may fade from memory without reinforcement, especially if comprehension wanes. Delegating to family undermines independence when the patient is capable, reducing self-efficacy. Demonstration with practice builds confidence and competence, aligning with adult learning principles and gerontologic nursing's focus on functional ability, ensuring the patient can manage wounds effectively, a hands-on strategy proven to enhance adherence in this population.
Question 5
A 20-year-old man newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes needs to learn how to self-administer insulin. When planning the appropriate educational interventions and considering variables that will affect his learning, the nurse should prioritize which of the following factors?
A. Patient's expected lifespan
B. Patient's gender
C. Patient's occupation
D. Patient's culture
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Patient's culture
Culture profoundly shapes how individuals learn and perceive health information, making it the nurse's priority when teaching insulin administration to a 20-year-old with type 1 diabetes. Cultural beliefs influence attitudes toward needles, self-care, or diet key to insulin use affecting readiness and method preference (e.g., visual vs. verbal). Lifespan matters for long-term planning but not immediate learning, gender has minimal impact unless tied to cultural norms, and occupation might adjust timing but not core comprehension. A patient from a collectivist culture might involve family, while an individualistic one might prioritize autonomy. Tailoring education to culture ensures relevance and uptake, critical for a lifelong skill like insulin injection, aligning with health promotion's emphasis on personalized, effective teaching to foster adherence and disease management.
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Question 6
When assessing a patient who has been prescribed an antipsychotic medication, which statement would indicate a need for further patient education?
A. “I’m already too thin; I’m concerned that I’m going to get even thinner on this medication.â€
B. “I’m a beach bum. I follow the sun—Florida in the winter and New England in the summer.â€
C. “I just got married, and we are so excited about starting a family.â€
D. “My dad says that as soon as I am off the medication, he’ll give me the money for a car.â€
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because the statement indicates a potential issue with medication adherence. The patient's lifestyle of constantly moving between Florida and New England may disrupt the medication regimen, leading to missed doses or inconsistent treatment. This lack of adherence can impact the effectiveness of the antipsychotic medication.
Choice A is not correct as it indicates a concern about weight loss, which can be a common side effect of antipsychotic medications but does not necessarily indicate a need for further education. Choice C suggests a desire to start a family, which may require additional discussions but is not directly related to medication education. Choice D involves a promise of a reward for stopping the medication, which may indicate a misunderstanding but not necessarily a need for further education.
How many links in the chain of infection must be broken to prevent infection?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: One. To prevent infection, breaking any single link in the chain of infection is sufficient. This could be eliminating the infectious agent, interrupting the mode of transmission, protecting the portal of entry, or strengthening the host's immune response.
Explanation:
1. Breaking any one link prevents the transmission of the infectious agent.
2. For example, washing hands (interruption of the mode of transmission) can prevent the spread of infections.
3. By focusing on one key aspect, the entire chain is disrupted effectively.
Summary:
Choice A is correct because breaking one link in the chain of infection is necessary and sufficient to prevent infection. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they suggest a need to break multiple links, which is not always required for infection prevention.
The PA educator planning a smoking cessation program understands that the most basic type of health promotion program is
A. utilizing a variety of media for information dissemination
B. conducting health risk surveys
C. providing counseling for lifestyle and behavior change
D. facilitating environmental control programs
Correct answer:
Counseling for lifestyle and behavior change is the most basic health promotion program because it directly engages individuals to alter habits like quitting smoking through personalized support, a core step in fostering health. Media dissemination informs broadly but lacks interaction, surveys identify risks without action, and environmental controls modify surroundings (e.g., smoke-free zones) but don't target personal behavior directly. Counseling builds self-efficacy and addresses nicotine addiction head-on, making it foundational in cessation efforts. Health promotion prioritizes empowering individuals, and this hands-on method is the simplest, most immediate way to spark change, unlike indirect strategies requiring infrastructure or data. It's the starting point for many programs, aligning with behavior-focused health goals.
The nurse is planning to teach a 75-year-old patient with coronary artery disease about administering her prescribed antiplatelet medication. How can the nurse best enhance the patient's ability to learn?
A. Provide links to Web sites that contain evidence-based information
B. Exclude family members from the session to prevent distraction
C. Use color-coded materials that are succinct and engaging
D. Make the information directly relevant to the patient's condition
Correct answer:
Older adults learn best when information is relevant, paced, and reinforced, especially at 75 with coronary artery disease. Making antiplatelet medication teaching directly relevant linking it to her heart condition (e.g., preventing clots, reducing MI risk) anchors abstract concepts to personal stakes, enhancing retention and motivation per adult learning theory. Web links assume tech skills and vision not guaranteed, excluding family ignores their support role studies favor inclusion while color-coded materials help but lose impact if relevance lags or vision fades. Relevance drives comprehension and application (e.g., timing doses with meals), critical for an elderly patient managing a chronic illness, ensuring the nurse maximizes learning by connecting education to her lived experience, a proven strategy for this demographic.
Nursing assistants should be observant of residents' emotional needs because
A. Nursing assistants let residents know how they should be feeling on a regular basis
B. Compassionate care causes inappropriate relationships with residents
C. Residents sometimes rely on nursing assistants for emotional support
D. Relationships without boundaries are vital in facilities
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because residents sometimes rely on nursing assistants for emotional support. Nursing assistants play a crucial role in providing care and support to residents, including addressing their emotional needs. Residents may feel comfortable sharing their emotions with nursing assistants, seeking comfort and reassurance. This relationship is essential for the well-being of residents.
Choice A is incorrect because nursing assistants should not dictate how residents should feel but rather support their genuine emotions. Choice B is incorrect as compassionate care should not lead to inappropriate relationships but rather foster trust and respect. Choice D is incorrect because maintaining professional boundaries is crucial in healthcare settings to ensure the safety and well-being of residents and staff.
Indicate the CNC stimulating drug,which belongs to adaptogens:
A. Amphetamine
B. Eleuterococci extract
C. Caffeine
D. Sydnocarb
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Eleuterococci extract. Adaptogens are substances that help the body adapt to stress and promote balance. Eleutherococcus, also known as Siberian ginseng, is a well-known adaptogen commonly used as a stimulant in traditional medicine.
Rationale:
1. Eleuterococci extract is a known adaptogen that helps the body cope with stress and fatigue.
2. Amphetamine and Sydnocarb are stimulant drugs but do not belong to the category of adaptogens.
3. Caffeine is a stimulant but does not qualify as a true adaptogen since it does not have the holistic stress-adapting properties of adaptogens.
In summary, Eleuterococci extract is the correct choice as it aligns with the definition and properties of adaptogens, while the other choices lack the specific stress-adapting qualities required for adaptogens.
Your 49-year-old COPD patient is unconscious and exhibiting ineffective respirations. You quickly decide to attempt to control his airway and provide positive pressure ventilations. Which airway adjunct has a large distal end with an inflatable cuff that presses against the patient's esophageal sphincter while the proximal border of the airway device rests against the patient's tongue?
A. King LTD airway
B. Esophageal-Tracheal Combi-tube
C. Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA)
D. Nasotracheal intubation
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Esophageal-Tracheal Combi-tube. The Combi-tube has a large distal end with an inflatable cuff that presses against the esophageal sphincter, preventing gastric insufflation. The proximal border rests against the tongue, providing a secure airway. This device is specifically designed for unconscious patients with ineffective respirations, like the COPD patient in this scenario.
A: King LTD airway is a supraglottic airway device used for difficult airways but does not have the same features as the Combi-tube for unconscious patients.
C: Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA) does not have an inflatable cuff that prevents gastric insufflation like the Combi-tube.
D: Nasotracheal intubation involves passing a tube through the nose into the trachea and is not the most appropriate choice in this scenario.
A 14 year old female is brought to the ED after falling from a horse. She is immobilized on a long spine board with a hard collar and blocks. Cervical spine x-ray:
A. Will show cervical spine injury in more than 20% of these patients
B. Will exclude cervical spine injury if no abnormalities are found on the x-rays
C. Are not needed if she is awake, alert, neurologically normal, and has no neck pain or midline tenderness
D. Should be performed before addressing potential breathing or circulatory problems
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C. In a stable patient with no concerning symptoms after a traumatic event, cervical spine x-rays are not needed. This is because the decision to obtain imaging should be guided by clinical indications, such as presence of neck pain, neurological deficits, altered mental status, or midline tenderness. In this case, the patient is awake, alert, neurologically normal, and has no neck pain or midline tenderness, making imaging unnecessary. It is important to rely on clinical assessment rather than routine imaging to avoid unnecessary radiation exposure and healthcare costs. Other choices are incorrect because cervical spine x-rays are not always needed, they are not definitive in ruling out injuries, and addressing breathing or circulatory issues takes precedence over imaging in an unstable patient.
The choice of a local anesthetic for specific procedures is usually based on:
A. The duration of action
B. Water solubility
C. Capability of rapid penetration through the skin or mucosa with limited tendency to diffuse away from the site of application
D. All of the above
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because the choice of a local anesthetic for specific procedures should consider multiple factors, including the duration of action (A), water solubility (B), and the capability of rapid penetration through the skin or mucosa with limited diffusion away from the site of application (C). Duration of action is important for ensuring adequate pain relief during the procedure, water solubility affects the onset of action and tissue penetration, and limited diffusion helps in maintaining the anesthetic effect at the target site. Therefore, considering all these factors collectively ensures the most appropriate choice of local anesthetic for a specific procedure. Choices A, B, and C on their own do not encompass all the essential considerations for selecting a local anesthetic, making them incorrect.
Of the following, which patient will require an unsynchronized shock?
A. A 63-year-old male presenting with monomorphic ventricular tachycardia
B. A 78-year-old male presenting with unstable atrial fibrillation
C. A 44-year-old female presenting with unstable atrial flutter
D. A 39-year-old female presenting with polymorphic ventricular tachycardia
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because the patient presenting with polymorphic ventricular tachycardia is at high risk of progressing into ventricular fibrillation, a life-threatening rhythm requiring immediate unsynchronized shock. In contrast, choices A, B, and C involve stable rhythms or atrial arrhythmias that do not require immediate unsynchronized shock. Choice A describes monomorphic ventricular tachycardia, which can be managed with synchronized cardioversion. Choice B and C describe unstable atrial fibrillation and flutter, respectively, which can be treated with medications or synchronized cardioversion. Therefore, the patient with polymorphic ventricular tachycardia is the only one among the options who requires an unsynchronized shock due to the high risk of deterioration into a more dangerous rhythm.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 115 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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