You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Which of the following is a care guideline for visual impairments?
A. Use the face of an imaginary clock to explain object positions.
B. Keep the room as dark as possible.
C. Walk behind the resident while touching his back.
D. Touch the resident before identifying yourself.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Use the face of an imaginary clock to explain object positions.
The correct answer is A because using the face of an imaginary clock to explain object positions is a helpful technique for individuals with visual impairments to understand spatial relationships. This method is clear and easy to visualize, making it effective in communication. It promotes independence and enhances the person's understanding of their surroundings.
Explanation of why other choices are incorrect:
B: Keeping the room dark can further hinder the individual's ability to see and navigate their environment.
C: Walking behind the resident and touching their back can startle or make them uncomfortable. It's important to offer support from the side to maintain their sense of safety.
D: Touching the resident before identifying yourself can be alarming and invade their personal space. It's crucial to introduce yourself first to establish trust and ensure clear communication.
Question 2
In performing a breast examination, the nurse knows that examining the upper outer quadrant of the breast is especially important. The reason for this is that the upper outer quadrant is:
A. The largest quadrant of the breast.
B. The location of most breast tumors.
C. Where most of the suspensory ligaments attach.
D. More prone to injury and calcifications than other locations in the breast.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — The location of most breast tumors.
The correct answer is B: The location of most breast tumors. This is because statistically, the upper outer quadrant of the breast is where the majority of breast tumors are found. This area is more glandular and has more breast tissue, making it a common site for tumors to develop. It is important to focus on this area during a breast examination to detect any abnormalities early.
A: The largest quadrant of the breast - This is not the reason why examining the upper outer quadrant is important for detecting breast tumors.
C: Where most of the suspensory ligaments attach - While true, this is not the primary reason for focusing on the upper outer quadrant during a breast examination.
D: More prone to injury and calcifications than other locations in the breast - While calcifications can occur in this area, it is not the primary reason for its importance in detecting breast tumors.
Question 3
The nurse working in mental health nursing honors which historical nurse for working to improve care of the mentally ill?
A. Clara Barton
B. Florence Nightingale
C. Dorothea Dix
D. Lillian D. Wald
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Dorothea Dix
Dorothea Dix is honored for her advocacy in improving mental health care, developing psychiatric hospitals, and reforming treatment for the mentally ill. Clara Barton founded the Red Cross, focusing on disaster relief, not mental health. Florence Nightingale revolutionized general nursing, while Lillian Wald advanced public health, neither specializing in mental illness. Dix's efforts addressed inhumane conditions, influencing modern psychiatric nursing. Today, mental health nurses build on her legacy by advocating for patient dignity and access to care, such as ensuring therapy or safe environments. Her work also improved prison conditions, showing a broader commitment to vulnerable populations. This historical context inspires nurses to challenge stigma and secure resources, ensuring holistic care for mental health patients aligns with Dix's pioneering vision of compassion and reform.
Question 4
A tumor that is not cancerous is called a
A. Nonspecific tumor
B. Malignant tumor
C. Septic tumor
D. Benign tumor
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Benign tumor
The correct answer is D: Benign tumor. Benign tumors are noncancerous growths that do not invade nearby tissues or spread to other parts of the body. They are typically localized and do not pose a significant threat to health. The term "benign" indicates that the tumor is not harmful and tends to have a slow growth rate.
Rationale:
1. A: Nonspecific tumor - This term does not accurately describe the nature of a noncancerous tumor. Nonspecific typically refers to something that is not clearly defined or specific.
2. B: Malignant tumor - Malignant tumors are cancerous growths that can invade nearby tissues and spread to other parts of the body. This choice is incorrect as it describes a type of tumor that is harmful and poses a serious health risk.
3. C: Septic tumor - The term "septic" refers to an infection caused by bacteria, which is not related to the classification of tumors.
Question 5
Immediately after birth, the nurse is unable to suction the nares of a newborn. An attempt is made to pass a catheter through both nasal cavities with no success. What should the nurse do next?
A. Attempt to suction again with a bulb syringe.
B. Recognize that this situation requires immediate intervention.
C. Contact the physician to schedule an appointment for the infant at his or her next hospital visit.
D. N/A
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Recognize that this situation requires immediate intervention.
The correct answer is B: Recognize that this situation requires immediate intervention. If the nurse is unable to suction the nares and pass a catheter through, it suggests a potential blockage or obstruction in the nasal passages, which could lead to respiratory distress. Immediate intervention is crucial to ensure the newborn's airway is clear and breathing is not compromised. Contacting the physician or seeking further medical assistance promptly is necessary to address the issue.
Choice A is incorrect because simply attempting to suction again may not resolve the underlying obstruction, and delaying necessary intervention could be harmful. Choice C is incorrect as scheduling an appointment for the infant at a later time is not appropriate when immediate intervention is required. Choice D is not applicable as it does not provide any solution or guidance for the current situation.
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Question 6
Ms. Valencia prepares the process standards. Which of the following is NOT a process standard?
A. Initial assessment shall be done to all patients within twenty four hours upon admission.
B. Informed consent shall be secured prior to any invasive procedure
C. Patients' reports 95% satisfaction rate prior to discharge from the hospital.
D. Patient education about their illness and treatment shall be provided for all patients and their families.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C. Process standards are guidelines that outline the steps or procedures to be followed in specific situations. Choice C, which states "Patients' reports 95% satisfaction rate prior to discharge from the hospital," is not a process standard as it focuses on the outcome (satisfaction rate) rather than the specific process or steps to achieve it.
Step-by-step rationale:
1. Process standards are about defining the specific steps or procedures to be followed.
2. Choices A, B, and D all outline specific processes that need to be followed such as conducting initial assessments, securing informed consent, and providing patient education.
3. Choice C does not specify any process or steps to achieve the 95% satisfaction rate, making it more of an outcome measure rather than a process standard.
4. Therefore, Choice C is not a process standard, making it the correct answer.
The human body regulates homeostasis by communicating at the cellular level through the nervous and endocrine systems. Which of the following is responsible for serving as the command and control center for linking the systems together?
A. Hypothalamus
B. Adrenal gland
C. Thyroid gland
D. Pituitary gland
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Hypothalamus. The hypothalamus serves as the command and control center for linking the nervous and endocrine systems. It regulates body temperature, thirst, hunger, and other vital functions.
Rationale:
1. The hypothalamus is located in the brain and plays a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis by regulating hormone secretion from the pituitary gland.
2. It receives input from the nervous system and sends signals to the pituitary gland to release hormones that control various bodily functions.
3. The hypothalamus also controls the autonomic nervous system, which regulates involuntary processes such as heart rate and digestion.
4. The adrenal gland (B), thyroid gland (C), and pituitary gland (D) are important components of the endocrine system, but they do not serve as the central command center for linking the nervous and endocrine systems together.
The nurse is aware that positioning and range-of-motion (ROM) exercises most help the immobilized patient to prevent:
A. increased pain
B. contractures
C. pressure ulcers
D. compromised circulation
Correct answer:
For an immobilized patient, maintaining joint and muscle function is a priority, and contractures permanent shortening of muscles or tendons due to prolonged immobility are a significant risk. Positioning and ROM exercises keep joints flexible and muscles stretched, counteracting the tendency for tissues to stiffen and shorten when unused. Increased pain might occur with immobility, but ROM exercises primarily address stiffness rather than pain itself. Pressure ulcers result from prolonged pressure on skin, prevented more by repositioning than ROM alone. Compromised circulation can occur with immobility, but it's more directly managed by elevation or compression, not ROM exercises. Contractures are the most relevant outcome these interventions target, as they can lead to permanent disability if not addressed early, making this the primary focus of such care in immobilization scenarios.
During which type of contraction is a hamstring injury most likely to occur?
A. Concentric muscle contraction
B. Eccentric muscle contraction
C. Isometric contractions
D. Isotonic contractions
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Eccentric muscle contraction. During eccentric contractions, the muscle lengthens while generating force, placing greater stress on the muscle fibers and making them more susceptible to injury. In the case of the hamstring, which is commonly injured during activities involving sudden deceleration or slowing down, such as running downhill or stopping abruptly, the eccentric contraction plays a significant role. Choice A (Concentric muscle contraction) involves muscle shortening and is less likely to cause injury in the hamstring. Choice C (Isometric contractions) involve static muscle contractions with no change in muscle length, making them less likely to lead to hamstring injury. Choice D (Isotonic contractions) refers to muscle contractions with a constant load, which may or may not lead to hamstring injury depending on the specific exercise and load applied.
A patient who has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) was hospitalized for increasing shortness of breath and chronic hypoxemia (SaO2 levels of 89% to 90%). In planning for discharge, which action by the nurse will be most effective in improving compliance with discharge teaching?
A. Have the patient repeat the instructions immediately after teaching.
B. Accomplish the patient teaching just before the scheduled discharge.
C. Arrange for the patient's caregiver to be present during the teaching.
D. Accomplish the patient teaching just before the scheduled discharge.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Arrange for the patient's caregiver to be present during the teaching. Involving the caregiver in the teaching process increases the likelihood of proper understanding and adherence to the discharge instructions. The caregiver can provide additional support and reinforcement for the patient's education, especially in managing COPD symptoms at home. This collaborative approach promotes a more supportive environment for the patient post-discharge.
Choice A (Having the patient repeat instructions immediately after teaching) may not be as effective because the patient's understanding and retention of the information may still be limited. Choice B (Patient teaching just before discharge) may not allow enough time for the patient and caregiver to fully grasp and retain the information. Choice D is a duplicate of choice B and does not offer any additional benefit.
A patient asks the nurse if an enteric-coated tablet can be crushed and put in pudding to make it easier to swallow. How will the nurse respond to the patient?
A. Crushing the medication can lead to a possibly toxic medication dose.
B. Crushing the medication is safe and can prevent gagging on pills.
C. The tablet may be done if a small amount of pudding is used.
D. The tablet may be dissolved in liquid but not crushed and put in food.
Correct answer:
Enteric-coated tablets are designed to pass through the stomach intact and dissolve in the small intestine, where absorption is optimal and irritation to the stomach lining is minimized. Crushing such a tablet disrupts this protective coating, potentially releasing the drug too early in the stomach. This can lead to an excessive initial dose, increasing the risk of toxicity, or render the drug ineffective if it's destroyed by stomach acid. Option B is incorrect because crushing is not safe and could exacerbate swallowing difficulties rather than prevent them. Option C is misleading as the amount of pudding doesn't mitigate the coating's purpose, and Option D is wrong because enteric-coated tablets shouldn't be dissolved in liquid either. The nurse must emphasize the importance of maintaining the tablet's integrity for safety and efficacy, making A the correct and most precise response.
Which is the best example of evidence-based nursing practice?
A. Basing interventions on 35 years of nursing experience
B. Treating clients based on the nurse's own observations over time
C. Consulting with a prescribing health care provider about a client on the cardiac floor who does not take daily aspirin, a practice recommended in a nursing journal article for people 50 years and older
D. Recommending ginger to alleviate nausea and vomiting in obstetric clients based on a literature review
Correct answer:
Evidence-based nursing practice (EBNP) integrates the best research with clinical expertise and patient values, prioritizing systematic evidence over anecdote. Recommending ginger for obstetric nausea, based on a literature review, exemplifies this identifying a problem, reviewing studies, and applying findings to practice, ensuring efficacy and safety. Relying on 35 years of experience or personal observations lacks research validation, risking outdated or biased care. Consulting about aspirin reflects a single article's influence, not a comprehensive evidence synthesis, limiting its scope. EBNP's strength lies in its rigorous process ginger's use stems from multiple studies, offering a replicable, patient-centered solution. This approach enhances care quality, reduces variability, and aligns with nursing's scientific evolution, particularly for common issues like nausea in pregnancy.
The nurse is making a plan of care for a patient who is in the first 24-hour period past a cesarean delivery. Which interventions will the nurse include in regards to medications? Select all that apply.
A. Continue a daily stool softener.
B. Manage pain with morphine.
C. Ensure the availability of naloxone.
D. Provide prophylaxis antibiotics.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Ensure the availability of naloxone. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose, which could occur if the patient is receiving morphine for pain management post-cesarean delivery. It is essential to have naloxone readily available to counteract any potential opioid-related respiratory depression.
A: Continuing a daily stool softener is not directly related to medications typically given post-cesarean delivery and is not a priority in the immediate post-operative period.
B: Managing pain with morphine is a common practice post-cesarean delivery, but the focus here is on the intervention related to medication safety, which is ensuring naloxone availability.
D: Providing prophylactic antibiotics is important post-cesarean delivery to prevent infection but is not directly related to medication safety in this scenario.
You are caring for a patient with esophageal cancer. Which task could be delegated to the nursing assistant?
A. Assist the patient with oral hygiene
B. Observe the patient's response to feedings
C. Facilitate expression of grief or anxiety
D. Initiate daily weights
Correct answer:
Delegating tasks in nursing hinges on scope of practice. Assisting with oral hygiene is a basic care activity nursing assistants are trained to perform, supporting hygiene needs in esophageal cancer patients who may struggle with swallowing. Observing responses to feedings requires clinical judgment to assess tolerance or complications, a nurse's responsibility. Facilitating emotional expression involves therapeutic communication skills beyond an assistant's training, critical for addressing cancer-related distress. Initiating daily weights implies deciding when to start, requiring understanding of fluid status assistants can weigh patients but not initiate the process independently. Oral hygiene delegation optimizes care efficiency, aligns with assistants' capabilities, and frees nurses for higher-level assessments, ensuring safe, effective management of this patient's complex needs.
A child is seen in the pediatrician's office for complaints of bone and joint pain. Which other assessment finding may indicate leukemia?
A. Abdominal pain
B. Increased activity level
C. Increased appetite
D. Petechiae
Correct answer:
Leukemia often presents with bone and joint pain due to marrow infiltration by leukemic cells, but petechiae small red or purple spots from minor bleeds under the skin are a key additional sign of bleeding tendencies from thrombocytopenia, a common leukemia consequence. This reflects bone marrow failure to produce adequate platelets, making it a critical finding for nurses to note during assessment. Abdominal pain might occur from organ enlargement (e.g., splenomegaly), but it's less specific and not a primary complaint here. Increased activity level and appetite contradict leukemia's typical fatigue and anorexia due to metabolic demands of proliferating cells and anemia. Recognizing petechiae prompts urgent blood work and referral, aligning with nursing's role in early detection of pediatric leukemia, ensuring timely intervention to manage this life-threatening condition effectively.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 54 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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