You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Norms, values and behavioural attitudes peculiar to a particular society is referred to as
A. Heredity
B. Generation
C. Environment
D. Culture
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Culture
Culture is the term for the unique norms, values, and behavioral attitudes that characterize a specific society, distinguishing it from others. 'Culture,' is correct because it encompasses these shared elements, as defined by anthropologists like Clifford Geertz, who view culture as a system of inherited conceptions expressed through behavior. 'Heredity,' refers to genetic inheritance, not societal traits. 'Generation,' denotes a cohort within a society, not its defining characteristics. 'Environment,' includes physical and social surroundings but lacks the specificity of norms and values tied to culture. Culture's role as the collective identity of a society, shaping how its members think and act, makes D the precise answer, supported by its prominence in sociological studies as the lens through which societal peculiarities are understood and transmitted across time.
Question 2
The nurse is teaching a patient who will begin receiving targeted therapy for cancer. The patient asks how targeted therapy differs from other types of chemotherapies. The nurse will explain that targeted therapy
A. Damages cancer cell DNA to prevent cell replication.
B. Directly kills or damages cancerous cells.
C. Interferes with specific molecules in cancer cells.
D. Prevents metastasis of cancer cells.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Interferes with specific molecules in cancer cells.
The correct answer is C: Targeted therapy interferes with specific molecules in cancer cells. This type of therapy is designed to target specific abnormalities or molecules that are unique to cancer cells, which helps to inhibit their growth and spread. By focusing on these specific targets, targeted therapy can be more precise and effective compared to traditional chemotherapies.
A: Damaging cancer cell DNA to prevent cell replication is more characteristic of traditional chemotherapy, not targeted therapy.
B: Directly killing or damaging cancerous cells is a general mechanism of action for various cancer treatments, not specific to targeted therapy.
D: Preventing metastasis of cancer cells is not the primary mechanism of action of targeted therapy, which primarily focuses on inhibiting the growth and spread of cancer cells through specific molecular targeting.
Question 3
Click to highlight the findings that are recognized as needing only standard precautions.
A. Pain level 9/10 at upper abdominal discomfort
B. Watery diarrhea for the past 3 days
C. Visible jaundice
D. WBC count of 1,000 μL
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — WBC count of 1,000 μL
Standard precautions apply to all patients, but additional precautions (e.g., contact, droplet) depend on infection risk. Among the findings pain 9/10, watery diarrhea, jaundice, and WBC 1,000 μL (immunosuppression) WBC count of 1,000 μL (D) requires only standard precautions unless an active infection is confirmed. Pain (A) and jaundice (C) are symptoms, not contagious risks. Diarrhea (B) suggests possible infection (e.g., C. difficile), warranting contact precautions. The client's HIV status heightens infection susceptibility, but low WBC alone doesn't dictate beyond standard precautions. D is correct. Rationale: Standard precautions (hand hygiene, gloves) suffice for immunosuppression without transmissible disease; diarrhea triggers extra measures due to potential pathogen spread, per CDC guidelines, making D the least likely to escalate precautions in isolation.
Question 4
A nurse is working where the nurses set their own schedule, formulate goals for their unit, and participate in peer review. In what type of environment is the nurse working?
A. Big Brother' model
B. Shared governance model
C. Hierarchical model
D. Culture of candor model
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Shared governance model
The correct answer is B: Shared governance model. In this model, nurses have autonomy to set their own schedule, formulate goals, and participate in decision-making processes. This promotes a collaborative environment where nurses have a say in how their unit is run, leading to increased job satisfaction and improved patient outcomes.
Incorrect answers:
A: The 'Big Brother' model is characterized by strict surveillance and control, which is not reflective of the autonomy and collaboration seen in the scenario.
C: The Hierarchical model typically involves top-down decision-making with little input from frontline staff, which contradicts the autonomy and peer involvement in the scenario.
D: The Culture of candor model focuses on open communication and transparency, but does not specifically address the self-governance and peer review aspects mentioned in the scenario.
Question 5
Mrs. Ford has a belt restraint. How often should she be checked for the position of the restraint?
A. Every 10-15 minutes
B. Every 30 minutes
C. Every hour
D. Every two hours
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Every 10-15 minutes
Belt restraints are used to prevent falls or injury but pose risks like skin irritation, circulation issues, or discomfort if improperly positioned or left unchecked. Frequent monitoring is critical to ensure the restraint remains safe and effective. Checking every 10-15 minutes allows for timely adjustments and immediate response to any distress or complications, aligning with best practices in restraint use that emphasize resident safety and comfort. Every 30 minutes or hourly increases the risk of undetected issues, such as pressure sores or restricted blood flow, which can develop quickly. Every two hours is too infrequent, as guidelines typically recommend more regular checks often every 15 minutes or as per care plan to comply with safety standards and legal requirements in healthcare settings, making 'Every 10-15 minutes' the most appropriate and safest choice.
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Question 6
During a preconception consultation, a patient asks about factors affecting egg quality. What should the nurse explain?
A. Age is the primary factor influencing egg quality.
B. Diet has no impact on egg quality.
C. Hormonal treatments guarantee improvement in egg quality.
D. Exercise is the only way to enhance egg quality.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Age is the primary factor influencing egg quality. As a tutor, I will explain this by stating that the quality of a woman's eggs declines with age due to factors like genetic abnormalities and decreased mitochondrial function. This decline can affect fertility and increase the risk of chromosomal abnormalities in offspring.
For the incorrect choices:
B: Diet can impact egg quality by providing essential nutrients, so this choice is incorrect.
C: Hormonal treatments may help with fertility but do not guarantee improvement in egg quality, making this choice incorrect.
D: Exercise can contribute to overall health but is not the only way to enhance egg quality, making this choice incorrect.
In summary, age is a crucial factor affecting egg quality, while diet, hormonal treatments, and exercise play roles but are not primary influencers.
Antonio with lung cancer develops Horner's syndrome when the tumor invades the ribs and affects the sympathetic nerve ganglia. When assessing for signs and symptoms of this syndrome, the nurse should note:
A. miosis, partial eyelid ptosis, and anhidrosis on the affected side of the face.
B. chest pain, dyspnea, cough, weight loss, and fever.
C. arm and shoulder pain and atrophy of arm and hand muscles, both on the affected side.
D. hoarseness and dysphagia.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: miosis, partial eyelid ptosis, and anhidrosis on the affected side of the face. Horner's syndrome results from disruption of sympathetic nerve pathway, leading to these specific symptoms. Miosis (constricted pupil) occurs due to unopposed parasympathetic activity, partial eyelid ptosis (drooping eyelid) due to loss of sympathetic innervation to the eyelid muscle, and anhidrosis (lack of sweating) due to loss of sympathetic innervation to sweat glands. These symptoms are classic in Horner's syndrome.
Choice B is incorrect because the symptoms listed are more indicative of general symptoms of lung cancer rather than specific to Horner's syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it describes symptoms related to brachial plexopathy, not Horner's syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as hoarseness and dysphagia are not typical symptoms of Horner's syndrome.
A 25-year-old radio announcer comes to the clinic for an annual examination. His BMI is 26.0 kg/m2. He is concerned about his weight. Based on this information, what is appropriate counsel for the patient during the visit?
A. Refer the patient to a nutritionist because he is anorexic.
B. Reassure the patient that he has a normal body weight.
C. Give the patient information about reduction of fat, cholesterol, and calories because he is overweight.
D. Give the patient information about reduction of fat and cholesterol because he is obese.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Give the patient information about reduction of fat, cholesterol, and calories because he is overweight.
Rationale:
1. BMI of 26.0 kg/m2 indicates the patient is overweight, not underweight (anorexic) (Choice A) or obese (Choice D).
2. Patient's concern about weight indicates the need for guidance on healthy habits.
3. Providing information on reducing fat, cholesterol, and calories aligns with addressing weight concerns.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Refer the patient to a nutritionist because he is anorexic - Incorrect because the patient is overweight, not anorexic.
B: Reassure the patient that he has a normal body weight - Incorrect as BMI of 26.0 kg/m2 indicates overweight, not normal weight.
D: Give the patient information about reduction of fat and cholesterol because he is obese - Incorrect as the patient is overweight, not obese.
The nurse should plan to use a wet-to-dry dressing for which patient?
A. A patient who has a pressure injury with pink granulation tissue.
B. A patient who has a surgical incision with pink, approximated edges.
C. A patient who has a full-thickness burn filled with dry, black material.
D. A patient who has a wound with purulent drainage and dry brown areas.
Correct answer:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Wet-to-dry dressing is used for wounds with purulent drainage to promote healing by mechanical debridement. Purulent drainage indicates infection, making it necessary to remove dead tissue. Dry brown areas suggest necrosis, which requires removal to allow healthy tissue regeneration. Wet-to-dry dressing helps in this process by moistening the wound, facilitating the removal of necrotic tissue with each dressing change. This promotes a clean wound bed conducive to healing.
Summary of Other Choices:
A: Pink granulation tissue indicates healing, not requiring mechanical debridement.
B: Surgical incision with pink, approximated edges indicates a well-healing wound, not requiring wet-to-dry dressing.
C: Full-thickness burn with dry, black material suggests eschar formation, which requires specialized burn care, not wet-to-dry dressing.
The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of a bronchodilator for a client with asthma. Which finding indicates improvement?
A. Decreased wheezing on auscultation.
B. Respiratory rate increased to 24 breaths per minute.
C. Heart rate increased to 110 beats per minute.
D. Mild hand tremors reported by the client.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Decreased wheezing on auscultation. Wheezing is a common symptom of asthma due to narrowed airways. Improvement in asthma would lead to decreased wheezing as the airways open up, allowing for better airflow. This indicates that the bronchodilator is effectively working to dilate the airways and improve respiratory function.
Choice B: Respiratory rate increased to 24 breaths per minute is incorrect as an increased respiratory rate could indicate respiratory distress or worsening of asthma symptoms.
Choice C: Heart rate increased to 110 beats per minute is incorrect as an increased heart rate could indicate stress or anxiety, not necessarily improvement in asthma.
Choice D: Mild hand tremors reported by the client is incorrect as hand tremors are a common side effect of bronchodilators and not a direct indicator of asthma improvement.
A woman of childbearing age is diagnosed with breast cancer. She is currently taking hormonal contraceptives. What information should the woman be given regarding the hormonal contraceptives?
A. The hormonal contraceptives do not affect the course of the disease.
B. The hormonal contraceptives will stimulate uterine bleeding.
C. The hormonal contraceptives will impair uterine bleeding.
D. The hormonal contraceptives will stimulate tumor growth.
Correct answer:
In women with breast cancer, hormonal contraceptives, which contain estrogen and progestin, can exacerbate the disease. Many breast cancers are hormone-sensitive, meaning estrogen can fuel tumor growth by binding to receptors on cancer cells, accelerating proliferation. Continuing these medications during a breast cancer diagnosis risks worsening the condition, necessitating their discontinuation. They don't directly influence uterine bleeding in this context, nor are they neutral to the disease's progression; their hormonal effects are significant. Informing the woman of this risk ensures she understands the potential for tumor stimulation, prompting a switch to non-hormonal contraception methods. This guidance aligns with clinical evidence linking estrogen exposure to adverse outcomes in hormone-dependent cancers, prioritizing disease management and patient safety.
At a family function, your aunt starts to gossip and talk negatively about a cousin whom you really like. You go to another room to keep out of the discussion.
A. The avoiding style
B. The forcing style
C. The accommodation style
D. The collaboration style
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: The avoiding style. This approach involves withdrawing from conflict or problematic situations to prevent escalation. In this scenario, avoiding the negative talk about your cousin is a way to maintain harmony and avoid confrontation. By choosing to go to another room, you are effectively preventing the gossip from affecting your relationship with your aunt and cousin.
Summary of other choices:
B: The forcing style involves asserting your own concerns and ignoring others' needs, which could lead to further conflict in this situation.
C: The accommodation style focuses on giving in to maintain relationships, which may not address the underlying issue of gossip.
D: The collaboration style involves working together to find a mutually beneficial solution, which is not applicable in this context as the primary goal is to avoid the negative talk.
A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of asthma. The patient is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the priority intervention?
A. Administer a bronchodilator.
B. Administer insulin therapy.
C. Administer short-acting bronchodilators.
D. Administer corticosteroids.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Administer a bronchodilator. The priority intervention for a patient with asthma experiencing shortness of breath is to administer a bronchodilator to help open up the airways and improve breathing. Bronchodilators work quickly to relieve acute symptoms of asthma by relaxing the muscles around the airways. This intervention is crucial in managing an acute asthma exacerbation.
Summary:
- Option B: Administer insulin therapy is incorrect because it is not indicated for managing asthma exacerbation.
- Option C: Administer short-acting bronchodilators is partially correct but not as specific as option A, which specifies the immediate need for bronchodilator therapy.
- Option D: Administer corticosteroids is important for long-term control of asthma but not the priority intervention in an acute exacerbation where immediate relief is needed.
When assessing the pulse of a 6-year-old boy, the nurse notices that his heart rate varies with his respiratory cycle, speeding up at the peak of inspiration and slowing to normal with expiration. The nurse's next action would be to:
A. Immediately notify the physician.
B. Consider this finding normal in children and young adults.
C. Check the child's blood pressure, and note any variation with respiration.
D. Document that this child has bradycardia, and continue with the assessment.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Consider this finding normal in children and young adults.
Rationale:
1. This phenomenon is known as respiratory sinus arrhythmia, which is a normal variation in heart rate seen in children and young adults.
2. It occurs due to the physiological response of the autonomic nervous system to changes in intrathoracic pressure during respiration.
3. In children, the heart rate normally speeds up during inspiration and slows down during expiration.
4. Since this is a normal finding, there is no need to notify the physician or consider it as bradycardia.
Summary of other choices:
A: Not necessary to immediately notify the physician as this is a normal finding.
C: Checking the blood pressure is not indicated as the pulse variation with respiration is a separate phenomenon.
D: Documenting bradycardia is incorrect as this is not the case here.
The ability of an individual to cope with death is dependent upon a number of factors. Which person likely has the most difficulty coping with a death?
A. A parent whose 17-year-old child died in an auto accident the night before graduation
B. A child of 8 years whose grandparent dies a week before a planned visit
C. The spouse of an alcoholic who is killed in an automobile accident
D. The grandparent of a child born with Tay-Sachs disease
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because losing a child is considered one of the most devastating experiences a person can face, regardless of the circumstances. The sudden death of a young person on the brink of adulthood adds layers of complexity and emotional pain. The loss of potential, unfulfilled dreams, and the traumatic nature of the accident all contribute to the intense grief and difficulty in coping.
Choice B is incorrect because while the child may experience grief and confusion, the emotional impact is typically less compared to losing a child. Choice C is incorrect as the relationship with the alcoholic spouse may have been strained due to addiction, potentially lessening the emotional attachment. Choice D is incorrect as the grandparent may experience grief over the loss of their grandchild, but the intensity is generally lower than losing a child directly.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 64 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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