LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 113
LPN exams · fundamentals
LPN exams fundamentals practice questionsset 113
You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Dialysis is used to treat patients with:
A. Acute glomerulonephritis.
B. Renal failure.
C. Nephrolithiasis.
D. Pyelonephritis.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Renal failure.
Step-by-step rationale:
1. Renal failure is a condition where the kidneys are unable to adequately filter waste from the blood.
2. Dialysis is a treatment used to perform the functions of the kidneys in patients with renal failure.
3. Dialysis helps remove excess waste, fluids, and toxins from the blood, maintaining proper electrolyte balance.
4. Patients with acute glomerulonephritis, nephrolithiasis, and pyelonephritis may not require dialysis as their conditions do not directly affect kidney function to the extent that renal failure does.
Summary:
- A: Acute glomerulonephritis does not always lead to renal failure requiring dialysis.
- C: Nephrolithiasis is the formation of kidney stones and may not always require dialysis.
- D: Pyelonephritis is a kidney infection and may not necessarily lead to renal failure requiring dialysis.
Question 2
_____________ is verbal, physical, or sexual abuse of staff by other staff members or residents.
A. Workplace indiscretion
B. Office negligence
C. Office liability
D. Workplace violence
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Workplace violence
The correct answer is D, workplace violence. Verbal, physical, or sexual abuse falls under the category of workplace violence. Verbal abuse includes threats, insults, and harassment. Physical abuse involves physical harm or aggressive behavior. Sexual abuse is any unwanted sexual behavior or advances. Workplace violence encompasses all these forms of abuse towards staff by other staff members or residents.
Summary of other choices:
A: Workplace indiscretion - This term generally refers to minor errors or breaches of etiquette in the workplace, not to serious abusive behavior.
B: Office negligence - Negligence typically refers to a failure to take reasonable care or fulfill a duty, not to intentional abusive actions.
C: Office liability - Liability pertains to legal responsibility for harm or damages, not the actual act of abuse itself.
Question 3
A 2-year-old boy has been diagnosed with physiologic cryptorchidism. Considering this diagnosis, during assessment the nurse will most likely observe:
A. Testes that are hard and painful to palpation.
B. Atrophic scrotum and a bilateral absence of the testis.
C. Absence of the testis in the scrotum, but the testis can be milked down.
D. Testes that migrate into the abdomen when the child squats or sits cross-legge
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Absence of the testis in the scrotum, but the testis can be milked down.
The correct answer is C. Physiologic cryptorchidism refers to a common condition in newborns where the testes have not descended into the scrotum but can be manually pushed down (milked) into the scrotum. This is a normal developmental process that usually resolves by the age of 3 months.
Rationale:
1. Absence of the testis in the scrotum: In physiologic cryptorchidism, the testes are not palpable in the scrotum due to incomplete descent.
2. Testis can be milked down: The testes can be gently pushed down into the scrotum, indicating that they are present and capable of descending on their own.
Summary of other choices:
A: Testes that are hard and painful to palpation is incorrect because physiologic cryptorchidism is not associated with inflammation or pain.
B: Atrophic scrotum and bilateral absence of the testis is incorrect as
Question 4
Which of the following diuretics than can cause gynecomastia, hirsutism and menstrual disturbances as adverse reactions?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Bumetanide
C. Acetazolamide
D. Spironolactone
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Spironolactone
Step-by-step rationale:
1. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that acts as an aldosterone antagonist.
2. Aldosterone antagonism can lead to anti-androgenic effects, causing gynecomastia and hirsutism in males and menstrual disturbances in females.
3. Hydrochlorothiazide (A) is a thiazide diuretic known for electrolyte imbalances, not these specific side effects.
4. Bumetanide (B) is a loop diuretic that primarily affects electrolytes, not causing hormonal side effects.
5. Acetazolamide (C) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, usually associated with metabolic acidosis, not hormonal disturbances.
Summary:
Spironolactone (D) is the correct answer due to its aldosterone antagonist properties causing hormonal side effects. The other choices do not have the same mechanism of action and are not associated with gynecomastia,
Question 5
During a speculum inspection of the vagina, the nurse would expect to see what at the end of the vaginal canal?
A. Cervix
B. Uterus
C. Ovaries
D. Fallopian tubes
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Cervix
The correct answer is A: Cervix. During a speculum inspection, the nurse would expect to see the cervix at the end of the vaginal canal. The cervix is the lower part of the uterus that connects the uterus to the vagina. It appears as a small, round structure at the end of the vaginal canal. This is an important part of the female reproductive system that can be visualized during a speculum examination.
Summary:
B: Uterus - Incorrect as the uterus is located above the cervix and is not visible at the end of the vaginal canal.
C: Ovaries - Incorrect as the ovaries are located on either side of the uterus and are not visible during a speculum examination.
D: Fallopian tubes - Incorrect as the fallopian tubes are not visible during a speculum examination as they are located above the ovaries and connect the ovaries to the uterus.
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Question 6
The main reason for the use of combination therapy in the drug treatment of Tuberculosis is:
A. Reduce the incidence of side effects
B. Delay or prevent the emergence of resistance
C. Synergistically increase antimycobacterial activity
D. Provide prophylaxis against other bacterial infections
Correct answer:
The main reason for using combination therapy in TB treatment is to delay or prevent the emergence of resistance. Step 1: TB is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which has a high mutation rate leading to drug resistance. Step 2: With combination therapy, multiple drugs target different aspects of the bacteria's lifecycle, making it harder for resistance to develop. Step 3: This approach ensures that if one drug becomes ineffective due to resistance, others can still be effective. Summary: Choice B is correct as it directly addresses the issue of resistance, which is a critical concern in TB treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because reducing side effects, increasing antimycobacterial activity, and providing prophylaxis against other bacterial infections are not the primary reasons for using combination therapy in TB.
_____________ is verbal, physical, or sexual abuse of staff by other staff members or residents.
A. Workplace indiscretion
B. Office negligence
C. Office liability
D. Workplace violence
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Workplace violence. Workplace violence refers to any verbal, physical, or sexual abuse directed towards staff by other staff members or residents. This term accurately describes the abusive behavior mentioned in the question.
A: Workplace indiscretion - This term typically refers to minor mistakes or errors in judgment, not violent behavior.
B: Office negligence - Negligence pertains to a failure to take reasonable care, not necessarily physical or verbal abuse.
C: Office liability - Liability refers to legal responsibility for one's actions, not the act of abuse itself.
In summary, D is the correct answer as it specifically describes the abusive behavior in the context of workplace violence, while the other choices do not accurately capture the nature of the abuse described in the question.
This antitubercular drug has penetration to the CSF equal to plasma concentration, of which it is highly useful in meningeal TB:
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin
C. Ethanbutol
D. Pyrazinamide
Correct answer:
Step-by-step rationale:
1. Pyrazinamide has excellent penetration into CSF due to its small molecular size and lipid solubility.
2. This characteristic makes it highly effective in treating meningeal tuberculosis.
3. Isoniazid, Rifampicin, and Ethambutol do not have the same level of CSF penetration as Pyrazinamide.
4. Isoniazid is primarily metabolized in the liver, Rifampicin has poor CSF penetration, and Ethambutol has limited penetration.
5. Therefore, Pyrazinamide is the most suitable choice for treating meningeal TB due to its ability to reach therapeutic concentrations in the CSF.
Summary of incorrect choices:
A. Isoniazid is metabolized in the liver and does not have equal penetration to CSF.
B. Rifampicin has poor penetration into CSF compared to Pyrazinamide.
C. Ethambutol has limited penetration to CS
A 32-year-old woman presents with vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain. The nurse suspects an ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following is the most common risk factor for ectopic pregnancy?
A. Previous pelvic surgery.
B. Endometriosis.
C. Tubal ligation.
D. Pelvic inflammatory disease.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID can lead to scarring and narrowing of the fallopian tubes, increasing the risk of ectopic pregnancy. This is because the fertilized egg may get stuck in the narrowed tube, leading to an ectopic pregnancy.
A: Previous pelvic surgery is a risk factor, but it is not the most common one for ectopic pregnancy.
B: Endometriosis can also affect fallopian tubes but is not the most common risk factor for ectopic pregnancy.
C: Tubal ligation is a form of contraception that reduces the risk of pregnancy but does not increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy.
In summary, PID is the most common risk factor for ectopic pregnancy due to its potential to cause fallopian tube scarring and narrowing, leading to the implantation of the fertilized egg outside the uterus.
Which of the following should be washed every day?
A. Hair
B. Knees
C. Chest
D. Perineum
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Perineum. The perineum is an area of the body that should be washed daily to maintain hygiene and prevent infections. It is the area between the genitals and the anus and tends to accumulate sweat and bacteria. Washing the perineum daily helps keep this area clean and reduces the risk of infections.
A: Hair does not need to be washed every day as it can lead to dryness and damage.
B: Knees do not require daily washing unless they are visibly dirty or exposed to contaminants.
C: Chest does not necessarily need to be washed daily unless there is a specific reason such as excessive sweating or dirt accumulation.
In summary, the perineum should be washed daily for hygiene purposes, while the other body parts do not require daily washing unless there are specific circumstances that warrant it.
A woman with no history of UTIs who is experiencing urgency, frequency, and dysuria comes to the clinic, where a dipstick and microscopic urinalysis indicate bacteriuria. What should the nurse anticipate for this patient?
A. Obtaining a clean-catch midstream urine specimen for culture and sensitivity
B. No treatment with medication unless she develops fever, chills, and flank pain
C. Empirical treatment with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX, Bactrim) for 3 days
D. Need to have a blood specimen drawn for a complete blood count (CBC) and kidney function tests
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because obtaining a clean-catch midstream urine specimen for culture and sensitivity is essential to confirm the presence of a urinary tract infection (UTI) and determine the appropriate antibiotic treatment. This method helps to identify the specific bacteria causing the infection and their susceptibility to antibiotics.
Choice B is incorrect as waiting for the development of severe symptoms like fever, chills, and flank pain can lead to complications and delayed treatment.
Choice C is incorrect because empirical treatment without confirming the specific bacteria and their sensitivity can lead to inappropriate antibiotic use and potential antibiotic resistance.
Choice D is incorrect as a blood specimen for CBC and kidney function tests is not the primary intervention for a suspected UTI.
Combivir is a combination therapy used to treat HIV and AIDS include which of the following drugs?
A. Lamivudine and stavudine
B. Lamivudine and zidovudine
C. Abacavir and zidovudine
D. Abacavir and stavudine
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Lamivudine and zidovudine. Combivir is a combination therapy that contains these two drugs, which are commonly used together to treat HIV and AIDS. Lamivudine and zidovudine work synergistically to inhibit viral replication by targeting different stages of the HIV life cycle. Lamivudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) that blocks the action of the enzyme reverse transcriptase, while zidovudine is also an NRTI that interferes with viral DNA synthesis. This combination helps reduce the viral load and improve the immune response in patients.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Lamivudine and stavudine - Stavudine is not part of the Combivir combination therapy.
C: Abacavir and zidovudine - Abacavir is not part of the Combivir combination therapy.
D: Abacavir and stavudine
This is Mr. Taylor’s first postoperative day. The urinary bladder drainage has become darker in color. Your initial action would be to
A. call the attending physician
B. irrigate with a piston syringe
C. check the flow to maintain a light pink drainage
D. Nothing; this is expected at this time
Correct answer:
Correct Answer (C): Check the flow to maintain a light pink drainage.
Rationale:
1. Darker bladder drainage may indicate blood in the urine, which could be a sign of internal bleeding postoperatively.
2. Checking the flow allows you to assess the amount and color of drainage to ensure it stays light pink, indicating no significant bleeding.
3. Monitoring the drainage color helps in early detection of complications and prompt intervention if needed.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Calling the attending physician is not the initial action as it may delay necessary intervention.
B: Irrigating with a piston syringe can disrupt the natural drainage pattern and should not be done without a healthcare provider's order.
D: Ignoring the change in color as expected can lead to overlooking a potentially serious issue.
At a visit to the provider's office, an older adult patient's partner reports that the patient has nausea, diarrhea, and a loss of appetite. He has a history of Alzheimer's disease and is taking donepezil (Aricept). The provider should advise which of the following?
A. Take the drug with food.
B. Stop taking the drug right away.
C. Take a reduced dosage of the drug.
D. Undergo liver function tests right away.
Correct answer:
Cholinesterase inhibitors such as donepezil commonly cause nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and other gastrointestinal symptoms. This is due to the increase of acetylcholine in all parts of the body, and its subsequent effect on the gastrointestinal tract and other systems of the body. The provider should explain to the patient and his caregiver that taking the drug with food and at bedtime will help minimize uncomfortable gastrointestinal effects. The provider also should instruct the partner to report vomiting, severe diarrhea, weight loss, or signs of gastrointestinal bleeding, such as dark stools or coffee-ground emesis, especially if the patient is also taking a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug. At this point, it is not necessary to stop taking the drug, reduce the dosage, or undergo liver function tests.
Which of the following statement about retroviral protease inhibitors?
A. They act at an early step in HIV replication
B. They are more active in inhibiting HIV than zidovudine
C. They inhibit CYP 3A4 and interact with many other drugs
D. Both (b) and (c) are correct
Correct answer:
Rationale for choice D: Retroviral protease inhibitors, such as lopinavir and ritonavir, are correct because they are more active in inhibiting HIV replication than zidovudine (B) and they inhibit CYP 3A4 and interact with many other drugs (C).
Explanation for why other choices are incorrect:
A: Retroviral protease inhibitors do not act at an early step in HIV replication; they act by blocking the protease enzyme necessary for viral maturation.
B: Zidovudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, not a protease inhibitor, so retroviral protease inhibitors are more potent against HIV.
C: While retroviral protease inhibitors do inhibit CYP 3A4 and interact with other drugs, this statement alone does not capture the complete picture of their mechanism of action or potency compared to zidovudine.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 113 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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