You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A specific aspect of the treatment of thermal injury is:
A. Chemical burn require the immediate removal of clothing
B. Patients who sustain thermal injury are at lower risk for hypothermia
C. Patients with circumferential truncal burns need prompt fasciotomies
D. Electrical burns are associated with extensive skin necrosis (from entry point to exit)
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Chemical burn require the immediate removal of clothing
Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct:
1. In cases of thermal injury, immediate removal of clothing is crucial to stop the burning process and prevent further damage.
2. Clothing can retain heat and continue to burn the skin, exacerbating the injury.
3. Removing clothing also allows for a thorough assessment of the extent of the burn and enables proper treatment.
4. Prompt removal of clothing is a standard protocol in the initial management of thermal injuries.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
B. Patients with thermal injuries are at higher risk for hypothermia due to loss of skin integrity and body heat, not lower risk.
C. Fasciotomies are typically needed for patients with compartment syndrome, not circumferential truncal burns.
D. Electrical burns can cause tissue necrosis along the path of the current, not necessarily extensive skin necrosis from entry to exit points.
Question 2
A group of nurses implemented a pilot study to evaluate a proposed evidence-based change to providing client care. Evaluation indicates successful outcomes, and the nurses want to integrate the change throughout the facility. Which action should be taken? (Select all that apply)
A. Invite data review by the quality improvement department
B. Submit a sentinel event report to the research committee
C. Propose clinical practice guidelines to the nursing committee
D. Arrange in-service training through the educational department
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Invite data review by the quality improvement department
Inviting data review by the quality improvement department is crucial to ensure the quality and efficacy of the proposed evidence-based change. This step allows for a comprehensive analysis of the data collected during the pilot study. Proposing clinical practice guidelines to the nursing committee is also essential for integrating the successful change into routine practice. In-service training through the educational department will help educate staff and ensure they are proficient in implementing the new practices. Submitting a sentinel event report to the research committee is not necessary in this scenario as the outcomes were successful, and there were no adverse events that would warrant such a report. Choices B, C, and D are not as relevant in this context compared to inviting data review by the quality improvement department, which is a crucial step in ensuring the success of the proposed change.
Question 3
When a person becomes unemployed, he is likely to experience which of the following?
A. A reactive crisis
B. A situational crisis
C. An adventitious crisis
D. A substance abuse crisis
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — A situational crisis
Unemployment triggers a situational crisis because it is a specific, external event that disrupts an individual's life, requiring them to adapt to a new reality. Unlike a reactive crisis, which might imply a broader reaction to various stimuli, a situational crisis is directly linked to a distinct occurrence, such as losing a job, which can lead to financial strain, loss of identity, or emotional distress. An adventitious crisis involves unpredictable, large-scale disasters like natural calamities, not personal events like unemployment. A substance abuse crisis, while a potential consequence, is not the immediate or typical result of job loss unless specified. Situational crises are common in nursing contexts, where patients face tangible challenges that alter their stability, and nurses must assess and intervene based on the specific circumstances driving the crisis, making this the most accurate answer.
Question 4
A nurse is providing care to an older adult client. Which of the following screening tools should the nurse use to gather data for the client?
A. The Gerontological Personality Disorder Scale (GPS)
B. Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9)
C. Denver II Developmental Screening
D. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5)
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9)
The correct answer is B: Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9). This tool is specifically designed to screen for depression in older adults. The PHQ-9 is validated and widely used in clinical settings to assess depressive symptoms. It is essential to use a screening tool tailored to the client's age group to ensure accurate results. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: The Gerontological Personality Disorder Scale (GPS) is not a standard screening tool for older adults and focuses on personality disorders, not depression.
C: Denver II Developmental Screening is used to assess developmental milestones in children, not appropriate for older adults.
D: The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5) is a diagnostic manual used by mental health professionals to classify mental disorders, not a screening tool for gathering data on depressive symptoms in older adults.
Question 5
When the patient asks what the purpose of goniometry is, the nurse replies that goniometry measures:
A. bone strength
B. muscle density
C. muscle strength
D. range of motion
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — range of motion
Goniometry is a clinical tool used to assess joint mobility, specifically the extent to which a joint can move through its normal range. This measurement is critical in evaluating conditions affecting joints, such as arthritis or post-injury stiffness, and in tracking rehabilitation progress. Bone strength relates more to density and structural integrity, typically assessed via imaging like a DEXA scan, not goniometry. Muscle density isn't a standard metric in this context and is unrelated to joint angles. Muscle strength, while important, is measured through manual testing or dynamometry, not by gauging joint movement. Range of motion is the precise focus of goniometry, as it quantifies the degrees of flexion, extension, or rotation, providing objective data for treatment planning. The other options misalign with the tool's purpose, which is rooted in joint function rather than bone or muscle properties.
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Question 6
You are preparing to perform synchronized electrical cardioversion with a biphasic defibrillator on your unstable adult patient who is experiencing supraventricular tachycardia at 160 beats per minute on the monitor. Which of the following initial energy settings would be recommended if he was exhibiting a narrow complex, regular supraventricular tachycardia, in which his palpable carotid pulse matches the rhythm on the monitor?
A. Synchronized cardioversion at 50-100 joules
B. Defibrillation at 100 joules
C. Synchronized cardioversion at 360 joules
D. Defibrillation at 360 joules
Correct answer:
The correct initial energy setting for synchronized electrical cardioversion in this scenario is option A: Synchronized cardioversion at 50-100 joules. This is because the patient is stable with a narrow complex, regular supraventricular tachycardia, and synchronized cardioversion is indicated for this condition. The recommended starting energy range for synchronized cardioversion in this case is typically 50-100 joules. This energy setting is appropriate for converting supraventricular tachycardia back to sinus rhythm without causing unnecessary harm to the patient.
Summary of other choices:
- B: Defibrillation at 100 joules: Defibrillation is not indicated for stable supraventricular tachycardia; it is used for ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
- C: Synchronized cardioversion at 360 joules: This energy setting is too high for a stable patient with supraventricular tach
If a relationship is important to you and you just want to 'hide' your dissatisfaction, you may choose this conflict management style
A. accommodating
B. withdrawal
C. compromising
D. collaborating
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: accommodating. This conflict management style involves prioritizing the other person's needs over your own to maintain the relationship. By choosing to accommodate, you are essentially 'hiding' your dissatisfaction to avoid conflict and preserve harmony. This approach is suitable when the relationship is more important than the issue at hand.
Withdrawal (B) involves avoiding conflict altogether by physically or emotionally distancing yourself, which does not address the issue or maintain the relationship effectively. Compromising (C) involves finding a middle ground where both parties give up something, which may not align with just hiding dissatisfaction. Collaborating (D) focuses on finding a win-win solution through open communication and problem-solving, which may not be necessary if the goal is simply to maintain the relationship without addressing personal dissatisfaction.
A woman in her 26th week of pregnancy states that she is 'not really short of breath' but feels that she is aware of her breathing and the need to breathe. What is the nurse's best reply?
A. The diaphragm becomes fixed during pregnancy, making it difficult to take in a deep breath.'
B. The increase in estrogen levels during pregnancy often causes a decrease in the diameter of the rib cage and makes it difficult to breathe.'
C. What you are experiencing is normal. Some women may interpret this as shortness of breath, but it is a normal finding and nothing is wrong.'
D. This increased awareness of the need to breathe is normal as the fetus grows because of the increased oxygen demand on the mother's body, which results in an increased respiratory rate.'
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because in the 26th week of pregnancy, it is normal for women to experience an increased awareness of their breathing without actual shortness of breath. This is due to the growing fetus putting pressure on the diaphragm, leading to a sensation of needing to breathe more frequently. The nurse's response should reassure the woman that her experience is normal and not a cause for concern.
Choice A is incorrect because the diaphragm does not become fixed during pregnancy, rather it is pushed upward by the growing uterus. Choice B is incorrect because although estrogen levels increase during pregnancy, causing changes in the rib cage, this does not directly lead to difficulty in breathing. Choice D is incorrect because the increased awareness of breathing is not solely due to the increased oxygen demand from the fetus but also from the physical changes in the body due to pregnancy.
A patient who has just undergone a colon resection complains to a nurse that he felt something pop under his dressing while trying to get out of bed.the nurse removes the dressing and finds that dehiscence of the wound has occurred.what nursing action should be implemented first?
A. Cover the wound with sterile dressings saturated with normal saline
B. Notify the surgeon immediately
C. Apply pressure to the wound
D. Place the patient in Trendelenburg position
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Cover the wound with sterile dressings saturated with normal saline. This action helps to maintain a moist environment for wound healing and prevent further contamination. The step-by-step rationale is: 1) Covering the wound with sterile dressings helps protect the wound from infection and further trauma. 2) Saturating the dressings with normal saline helps keep the wound moist, promoting healing. 3) This immediate action is crucial in preventing complications such as infection and further wound dehiscence.
Summary of other choices:
B: Notifying the surgeon immediately is important, but covering the wound to protect it should be done first.
C: Applying pressure to the wound can further damage the tissue and should not be done.
D: Placing the patient in Trendelenburg position is not necessary for wound dehiscence and does not address the immediate need to protect the wound.
An RN is a team leader for a small module of clients. While listening to a recorded report on a client, one of the team members remarks, 'My mother lives near him, and she says his home life is in chaos.' How should the RN best respond?
A. Politely ask the team member to be quiet
B. Include the information in report for the next shift.
C. Ask the team member how this information relates to the client's care
D. Ignore the team member's comment
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Ask the team member how this information relates to the client's care. This response is best because it addresses the issue directly by seeking clarification on the relevance of the team member's comment to the client's care. It shows professionalism, promotes open communication within the team, and ensures that personal biases or hearsay do not influence the client's care.
A: Politely ask the team member to be quiet - This response does not address the issue and may come off as dismissive or rude.
B: Include the information in report for the next shift - Sharing unverified information without context or relevance to the client's care could lead to misunderstandings and breaches of confidentiality.
D: Ignore the team member's comment - Ignoring the team member's comment does not address the potential impact on the client's care and may lead to overlooking important information.
A 3-year-old girl with a Wilms tumor is returning to the unit after a simple nephrectomy. Which of the following actions have the highest priority in caring for this child?
A. Maintaining NPO.
B. Monitoring the BP every 2 hours.
C. Turning her every 2 hours.
D. Administering pain medication every 4 hours.
Correct answer:
After a nephrectomy for Wilms tumor, monitoring blood pressure (BP) every 2 hours is the highest priority because kidney removal disrupts renin-angiotensin regulation, risking hypo- or hypertension, especially in a young child with one remaining kidney. Using the ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation), BP falls under circulation, a critical postoperative focus to detect shock or fluid imbalance early. Maintaining NPO is temporary post-anesthesia but shifts to hydration once awake, less urgent than BP. Turning every 2 hours prevents pressure ulcers, but a mobile 3-year-old post-simple nephrectomy likely moves independently unless sedated, lowering its priority. Pain medication is key but ranks lower (e.g., G' in extended ABCs) than circulation. Frequent BP checks ensure stability, aligning with nursing's role in pediatric surgical care to prevent complications in a child adapting to single-kidney function.
A client is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30°
B. Flush the tube with 50 mL of water every 2 hours
C. Replace the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours
D. Check the client's gastric residual every 8 hours
Correct answer:
Elevating the head of the bed to 30° is the correct action to take when a client is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. This position helps prevent aspiration of the enteral feedings into the lungs, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Additionally, elevating the head of the bed promotes proper digestion and absorption of the feedings by utilizing gravity to facilitate movement into the stomach and through the gastrointestinal tract. Flushing the tube with water every 2 hours (Choice B) is not necessary for continuous feedings and may disrupt the feeding schedule. Replacing the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours (Choice C) is not the standard recommendation unless there are specific concerns or complications. Checking the client's gastric residual every 8 hours (Choice D) is important but not the immediate action needed to prevent aspiration during enteral feedings.
D. is linked to the uterus through the uterine ostium;
Correct answer:
Step-by-step rationale for why choice D is correct:
1. The lateral extremity of the Fallopian tube is connected to the uterus through the uterine ostium.
2. This connection allows the passage of the ovum from the Fallopian tube to the uterus for implantation.
3. The uterine ostium serves as the entry point for the ovum to travel from the Fallopian tube to the uterus.
4. Therefore, choice D is correct as it accurately describes the anatomical connection between the Fallopian tube and the uterus.
Summary:
- Choice A is incorrect because the lateral extremity of the Fallopian tube does not open in the abdominal cavity.
- Choice B is incorrect because the Fallopian tube does not capture the ovule released by the ovary.
- Choice C is incorrect because the lateral extremity of the Fallopian tube does not display flared edges.
- Choice D is correct as it accurately describes the anatomical connection
A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with bulimia nervosa. The patient states, 'I feel so ashamed after I eat.' What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
A. You need to stop purging and focus on eating healthy foods.
B. I understand that you feel ashamed, but we are here to help you.
C. Don't worry about your eating habits. Focus on eating more regularly.
D. You need to accept your eating habits and learn to control them.
Correct answer:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
1. Empathy: By acknowledging the patient's feelings of shame, the nurse validates their emotions and shows understanding.
2. Therapeutic Communication: Expressing empathy creates a supportive environment and encourages the patient to open up about their struggles.
3. Building Trust: Acknowledging the patient's emotions helps in building a trusting nurse-patient relationship, essential for effective care.
4. Encouraging Help-Seeking Behavior: By stating "we are here to help you," the nurse encourages the patient to seek assistance and engage in treatment.
Summary:
A: This response oversimplifies the issue and doesn't address the patient's emotional needs.
C: Ignoring the patient's feelings and focusing solely on eating habits may be counterproductive.
D: This response lacks empathy and fails to provide the necessary support for the patient's emotional well-being.
The postanesthesia care unit (PACU) nurse transports the inpatient surgical patient to the medical-surgical floor. Before leaving the floor, the medical-surgical nurse obtains a complete set of vital signs. What is the rationale for this nursing action?
A. This is done to complete the first action in a head-to-toe assessment.
B. This is done to compare and monitor for vital sign variation during transport.
C. This is done to ensure that the medical-surgical nurse checks on the postoperative patient.
D. This is done to follow hospital policy and procedure for care of the surgical patient.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: This is done to compare and monitor for vital sign variation during transport.
1. Monitoring vital signs during transport is crucial to detect any changes or complications post-surgery.
2. Comparing pre-transport and post-transport vital signs helps in assessing the patient's stability.
3. Any significant variations in vital signs can indicate potential issues that need immediate attention.
4. This practice ensures continuity of care and promotes patient safety during transitions.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Completing a head-to-toe assessment is not the primary purpose of obtaining vital signs before transport.
C: The medical-surgical nurse obtaining vital signs does not necessarily imply checking on the postoperative patient.
D: Following hospital policy and procedure is important but does not specifically address the rationale for checking vital signs during transport.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 45 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
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