LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 105
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LPN exams fundamentals practice questionsset 105
You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A client on an in-patient psychiatric unit tells the nurse, "I should have died because I am totally worthless." In order to encourage the client to continue talking about feelings, which should be the nurse's initial response?
A. "How would your family feel if you died?"
B. "You feel worthless now, but that can change with time."
C. "You've been feeling sad and alone for some time now?"
D. "It is great that you have come in for help."
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — "You've been feeling sad and alone for some time now?"
The correct initial response is C: "You've been feeling sad and alone for some time now?" This response acknowledges the client's emotions and opens up the conversation for further exploration. By reflecting the client's feelings back to them, the nurse shows empathy and encourages the client to continue sharing their emotions. It validates the client's experience without judgment or minimizing their feelings.
Choice A is incorrect as it shifts the focus to the family's feelings, which may not be helpful in addressing the client's immediate emotional distress. Choice B is incorrect as it invalidates the client's current feelings by suggesting they will change with time. Choice D is incorrect as it does not directly address the client's expressed feelings of worthlessness and may come across as dismissive.
Question 2
Before administering any medication, what is the nurse's priority action regarding patient safety?
A. Verifying orders with another nurse
B. Documenting the medications given
C. Counting medications in the medication cart drawers
D. Checking the patient's identification using two identifiers
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Checking the patient's identification using two identifiers
Patient safety in medication administration hinges on the 'Nine Rights,' with right patient being foundational. Option D is correct because checking two identifiers (e.g., name and birthdate) ensures the medication goes to the intended recipient, preventing errors. Option A is incorrect as verifying orders with another nurse isn't routine unless required by policy for high-risk drugs. Option B is wrong because documentation occurs after administration, not before. Option C is irrelevant to immediate patient safety during administration. Using two identifiers, as in D, is a universal standard endorsed by organizations like The Joint Commission, mitigating risks of misidentification especially critical in busy settings or with similar patient names making it the nurse's priority action before any dose is given.
Question 3
During an IV catheter insertion demonstration, which statement by a nurse indicates understanding of the procedure?
A. "I will thread the needle into the vein at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up."
B. "I will insert the needle into the client's skin at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up."
C. "I will apply pressure approximately 1.2 inches below the insertion site before removing the needle."
D. "I will select a vein in the antecubital fossa for IV insertion based on its size and easily accessible location."
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — "I will insert the needle into the client's skin at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up."
The correct technique for IV catheter insertion involves inserting the needle at a 10 to 30-degree angle with the bevel up. This angle facilitates proper vein puncture, reduces the risk of complications, and minimizes trauma to the vein. Choice A is incorrect because threading the needle into the vein at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up is the correct technique, not threading it all the way into the vein. Choice C is incorrect because applying pressure 1.2 inches below the insertion site before removing the needle is not a standard step in IV catheter insertion. Choice D is incorrect because selecting the antecubital fossa vein solely based on its size and accessibility may not be the most appropriate criterion; vein selection should also consider factors like vein condition and patient comfort.
Question 4
A psychiatric-mental health nurse is working with a female client who has been a victim of abuse to foster a sense of empowerment and build relationships that are mutually satisfying. The nurse is incorporating the work of which theorist?
A. Neuman
B. Peplau
C. Miller
D. Orem
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Miller
Jean Baker Miller (1927-2006) conceptualized female development within the context of experiences and relationships. The Miller relational model views the central organizing feature of women's development as a sense of connection to others. The goal of development is to increase a woman's ability to build and enlarge mutually enhancing relationships. With Neuman's model, the key components are a client system (physiological, psychological, sociocultural, developmental, spiritual) interacting with the environment. The wholistic model can be applied to prevention and treatment. Hildegarde Peplau (1909-1999) introduced the first systematic theoretic framework for psychiatric nursing and focused on the nurse-patient relationship. Self-care is the focus of the general theory of nursing initiated by Dorothea Orem.
Question 5
The nurse is explaining the purpose of the Healthy People 2030 initiative to a client. Which goal(s) will the nurse point out as included?
A. Increase the number of people with health insurance
B. Decrease incidence of client with new cancer diagnosis
C. Increase the number of various medical degrees among the underrepresented racial and ethnic groups
D. Ensure more facilities are built to cater specifically to people with disabilities
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Increase the number of people with health insurance
Healthy People 2030 sets national goals to improve health equity and outcomes, including increasing health insurance access to reduce disparities, a measurable target tied to better care utilization. Decreasing new cancer diagnoses aims to lower chronic disease rates through prevention, like screening or lifestyle changes. Boosting medical degrees among underrepresented groups enhances workforce diversity, addressing cultural competence needs. Improving hearing and visual health via education prevents disability progression. Building disability-specific facilities isn't a goal; rather, it's about enhancing existing access. These objectives insurance, cancer reduction, diversity tackle root causes of inequity, aligning with nursing's advocacy for accessible, preventive care, impacting clients broadly by 2030.
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Question 6
Which are characteristics of chronic conditions?
A. Resolve spontaneously
B. Are rarely curable
C. Have a rapid onset
D. Have a prolonged course
Correct answer:
Chronic conditions, unlike acute ones, are defined by persistence and complexity, shaping nursing care. They are rarely curable e.g., diabetes requires ongoing management, not resolution. They have a prolonged course, unfolding over years, demanding sustained interventions like medication or lifestyle adjustments. Their onset is typically slow, not rapid, as with hypertension developing gradually versus a sudden fracture. They don't resolve spontaneously; without care, they worsen think arthritis progressing without therapy. These traits incurability, chronicity guide nurses to focus on long-term strategies, education, and support, contrasting with acute care's quick fixes. Understanding this ensures tailored plans that mitigate impact, enhancing quality of life for clients facing enduring health challenges.
When a nurse overhears the spouse of a patient threaten to 'smack you good if you don't shut up' while sitting in the unit's dayroom, which action reflects the most immediate, therapeutic nursing intervention?
A. Notify hospital security immediately that the situation exists!
B. Tell the spouse, 'Your presence is no longer permitted on the unit.'
C. Ask the patient if the spouse has ever engaged in physically abusive behavior.
D. Tell the spouse, 'The police will be called unless you leave immediately.'
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Notify hospital security immediately that the situation exists. This is the most immediate, therapeutic nursing intervention because the safety of the nurse, patient, and others in the unit is the top priority. By involving hospital security, the nurse can ensure a swift and appropriate response to the threatening behavior. This action helps to de-escalate the situation and protect everyone involved.
The other choices are incorrect because:
B: Asking the spouse to leave the unit could escalate the situation further and put the nurse at risk.
C: Asking the patient about the spouse's behavior may not be immediate enough to address the threat.
D: Threatening to call the police could escalate the situation and may not be the best approach to ensure safety for all parties involved.
When involved in phase III drug evaluation studies, what responsibilities would the nurse have?
A. Working with animals who are given experimental drugs
B. Choosing appropriate patients to be involved in the drug study
C. Monitoring and observing patients closely for adverse effects
D. Conducting research to determine effectiveness of the drug
Correct answer:
Phase III studies involve use of a drug in a vast clinical population in which patients are asked to record any symptoms they experience while taking the drugs. Nurses may be responsible for helping collect and analyze the information to be shared with the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) but would not conduct research independently because nurses do not prescribe medications. Use of animals in drug testing is done in the preclinical trials. Select patients who are involved in phase II studies to participate in studies where the participants have the disease the drug is intended to treat. These patients are monitored closely for drug action and adverse effects. Phase I studies involve healthy human volunteers who are usually paid for their participation. Nurses may observe for adverse effects and toxicity.
Which of the following is an example of inappropriate sexual behavior?
A. Two residents hugging each other for a long time
B. A male resident holding hands with another male resident
C. A resident noticeably flirting with another resident
D. A resident touching his genitals in the hallway
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because touching one's genitals in a public area is a clear example of inappropriate sexual behavior in any setting, including a care facility. This behavior is not only disruptive but also violates boundaries and can make others feel uncomfortable or even harassed. It is important to maintain a safe and respectful environment for all residents.
Choice A (Two residents hugging) is a display of affection that is generally acceptable and may provide comfort and support.
Choice B (Male residents holding hands) is a form of non-sexual physical contact that fosters companionship and emotional connection.
Choice C (Resident flirting) may be inappropriate depending on the context and extent of the behavior, but it is not inherently inappropriate like touching genitals in a public area.
A nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Fluid overload
C. Decreased blood pressure
D. Increased appetite
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Fluid overload. Clients with chronic kidney disease are prone to fluid overload due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys may not effectively regulate fluid balance, leading to fluid retention. Monitoring for signs of fluid overload, such as edema, hypertension, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hypokalemia, is less likely in chronic kidney disease as the kidneys often have difficulty excreting potassium, leading to hyperkalemia. Decreased blood pressure (Choice C) is not a common finding in chronic kidney disease unless complications like volume depletion occur. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease; in fact, many clients may experience a decreased appetite due to various factors such as uremia and dietary restrictions.
Which statement about the apices of the lungs is true? The apices of the lungs:
A. Are at the level of the second rib anteriorly.
B. Extend 3 to 4 cm above the inner third of the clavicles.
C. Are located at the sixth rib anteriorly and the eighth rib laterally.
D. Rest on the diaphragm at the fifth intercostal space in the midclavicular line (MCL).
Correct answer:
Rationale for Correct Answer (B): The apices of the lungs extend 3 to 4 cm above the inner third of the clavicles. This is because the lungs extend superiorly in the thoracic cavity, reaching above the clavicles at their highest points. This anatomical fact is essential to understand the complete lung anatomy.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Incorrect. The apices of the lungs are not at the level of the second rib anteriorly. They extend higher in the thoracic cavity.
C: Incorrect. The apices of the lungs are not located at the sixth rib anteriorly and the eighth rib laterally. They are positioned higher in the thoracic cavity.
D: Incorrect. The apices of the lungs do not rest on the diaphragm at the fifth intercostal space in the midclavicular line. They extend above this point towards the clavicles.
With regards to adverse effects of first-line antihypertensive medications, angioedema has been associated with which ONE of the following classes of antihypertensives?
A. Angiotensin receptor blockers
B. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
C. Calcium channel blockers (dihydropyridine)
D. Thiazide diuretics
Correct answer:
Angioedema, a potentially life-threatening swelling of deep skin layers or mucous membranes, is a well-documented adverse effect of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, occurring in about 0.1-0.7% of patients due to bradykinin accumulation from enzyme inhibition. This distinguishes ACE inhibitors from other first-line antihypertensives. Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) rarely cause angioedema, as they don't affect bradykinin levels. Calcium channel blockers (e.g., dihydropyridines like amlodipine) may cause peripheral edema but not angioedema. Thiazide diuretics are linked to electrolyte imbalances or rashes, not angioedema. Family physicians must recognize this ACE inhibitor risk, ensuring prompt discontinuation and airway management if it occurs, critical for safe chronic disease management.
Which of the following is an example of laissez-faire style of leadership?
A. A nurse manager allows staff to participate in a trial use of new IV pumps and contribute input when choosing a new product.
B. A nurse manager instructs two staff nurses to work out a problem themselves when a conflict arises between them.
C. A nurse manager allows the staff to select one of six colors of scrubs for the unit nursing staff to wear.
D. A nurse manager allows the nursing staff to choose which holiday they would prefer to take off before completing the work schedule.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because it exemplifies the laissez-faire style of leadership where the leader takes a hands-off approach and allows subordinates to resolve issues independently. In this scenario, the nurse manager empowers the staff nurses to work out their conflict without direct intervention, promoting autonomy and self-management. This approach fosters problem-solving skills, encourages accountability, and promotes a sense of ownership among the staff.
Choice A involves participative leadership style where the leader involves staff in decision-making, not laissez-faire. Choice C reflects democratic leadership where the leader allows participation in decision-making but still maintains control. Choice D represents a more consultative approach where the leader seeks input before making a decision.
Caring involves 5 processes, KNOWING, BEING WITH, DOING FOR, ENABLING and MAINTAINING BELIEF.
A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson
Correct answer:
Kristen Swanson's Theory of Caring, from the 1990s, outlines five processes: knowing (understanding the patient's experience), being with (offering presence), doing for (performing tasks patients can't), enabling (empowering self-care), and maintaining belief (instilling hope). Unlike Benner's expertise model, Watson's spiritual focus, or Leininger's cultural lens, Swanson's framework is practical and patient-centered. For instance, a nurse might ‘know' a cancer patient's fears, ‘be with' them during chemo, ‘do for' by administering meds, ‘enable' through education, and ‘maintain belief' by affirming recovery potential. Grounded in empirical research, her theory guides nurses in holistic care, particularly in maternal or end-of-life settings, emphasizing relational depth over technical skill alone.
Your 22 year old female patient is c/o severe burning with urination, fever of 101, and aching all over. She takes oral contraceptives. She reports one new partner within the last month. Palpation of the inguinal nodes reveals bilateral lymphadenopathy. There are more than 10 shallow ulcers along each side of the vulva. She is very tender at the introitus. Urine has some WBCs but no RBCs or bacteria. Which disorder of the vulva is most likely?
A. Genital herpes
B. Condylomata acuminata
C. Syphilitic chancre
D. Epidermoid cyst
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Genital herpes. The patient's symptoms of severe burning with urination, fever, aching, new sexual partner, bilateral lymphadenopathy, multiple shallow ulcers along the vulva, tenderness at the introitus, and absence of RBCs or bacteria in urine are all consistent with genital herpes. Genital herpes is caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV) and presents with painful vesicular lesions in the genital area. The presence of ulcers and lymphadenopathy points towards an infectious etiology. Condylomata acuminata (choice B) presents as genital warts caused by HPV, which typically do not cause ulcers. Syphilitic chancre (choice C) presents as a painless ulcer with a firm base, not multiple ulcers. Epidermoid cyst (choice D) presents as a benign skin lesion, not with the symptoms described.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 105 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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