LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 104
LPN exams · fundamentals
LPN exams fundamentals practice questionsset 104
You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
On auscultation of a patient’s lungs, the nurse hears low-pitched, bubbling sounds during inhalation in the lower third bilaterally. How should the nurse document this finding?
A. Inspiratory crackles at the bases
B. Expiratory wheezes in both lungs
C. Abnormal lung sounds in the apices of both lungs
D. Pleural friction rub in the right and left lower lobes
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Inspiratory crackles at the bases
The correct answer is A: Inspiratory crackles at the bases. Crackles are abnormal lung sounds caused by air passing through fluid in the alveoli or small airways. In this case, the low-pitched bubbling sounds heard during inhalation in the lower third bilaterally indicate the presence of inspiratory crackles at the bases. This finding suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, commonly seen in conditions such as pneumonia or heart failure affecting the bases. The other choices are incorrect because expiratory wheezes typically indicate asthma or COPD, abnormal lung sounds in the apices suggest conditions like tuberculosis, and pleural friction rub is characterized by a grating sound heard during both inspiration and expiration, commonly associated with pleurisy or pleural inflammation, not fluid-filled alveoli.
Question 2
Early central venous pressure monitoring during fluid resuscitation in the ED has the greatest utility in a:
A. Patient with a splenic laceration
B. Patient with an inhalation injury
C. 6-year-old child with a pelvic fracture
D. Patient with a severe cardiac contusion
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Patient with a severe cardiac contusion
The correct answer is D, a patient with a severe cardiac contusion. Central venous pressure monitoring is essential for assessing fluid status and cardiac function in patients with significant cardiac injuries. Monitoring CVP can guide fluid resuscitation and help optimize cardiac output in these patients.
Choice A, a patient with a splenic laceration, does not typically require CVP monitoring as the focus is on managing bleeding and hemodynamic stability. Choice B, a patient with an inhalation injury, would benefit more from oxygenation monitoring and respiratory support rather than CVP monitoring. Choice C, a 6-year-old child with a pelvic fracture, may require monitoring for hypovolemic shock but not necessarily through CVP monitoring, which is more invasive and not typically indicated in this scenario.
Question 3
_____ is a federal health insurance program for people who are 65 years of age or older or people of any age with permanent kidney failure or certain disabilities.
A. Medicare
B. Medicaid
C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
D. Health and Human Services
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Medicare
The correct answer is A: Medicare. Medicare is specifically designed as a federal health insurance program for individuals who are 65 years of age or older, individuals with permanent kidney failure, and certain disabilities. It provides coverage for hospital care, medical services, and prescription drugs for eligible individuals.
Choice B: Medicaid is a separate federal and state program that provides health coverage for low-income individuals and families.
Choice C: Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a federal agency responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions.
Choice D: Health and Human Services (HHS) is a federal department that oversees various health and human services programs, but it is not a health insurance program specifically for the mentioned groups.
Question 4
Select the most appropriate label to complete this nursing diagnosis: _____ related to feelings of shyness and poorly developed social skills as evidenced by watching television alone at home every evening.
A. Deficient knowledge
B. Ineffective coping
C. Social isolation
D. Powerlessness
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Social isolation
The correct answer is C: Social isolation. This nursing diagnosis best fits the situation described because the individual is experiencing feelings of shyness and poorly developed social skills, leading to isolation by watching television alone every evening. Social isolation refers to a lack of social interactions and connections, which aligns with the symptoms presented.
A: Deficient knowledge does not address the social aspect of the situation.
B: Ineffective coping does not directly address the social withdrawal behavior.
D: Powerlessness does not capture the essence of the individual's situation involving social skills and shyness.
In summary, social isolation is the most appropriate label as it directly reflects the individual's behavior and feelings of loneliness and lack of social engagement.
Question 5
A nurse is caring for a patient who is undergoing chemotherapy. Which intervention should be implemented to prevent infection?
A. Provide the patient with a mask to wear.
B. Administer prophylactic antibiotics.
C. Reposition the patient to prevent complications.
D. Perform a sputum culture.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Administer prophylactic antibiotics.
The correct answer is B: Administer prophylactic antibiotics. This intervention helps prevent infection in the patient undergoing chemotherapy by targeting potential pathogens before they cause harm. Chemotherapy can weaken the immune system, making patients more susceptible to infections. Providing a mask (choice A) may help reduce exposure but does not directly address preventing infection. Repositioning the patient (choice C) is important for preventing complications like pressure ulcers but does not specifically target infection prevention. Performing a sputum culture (choice D) is useful for diagnosing respiratory infections but does not focus on preventing infections proactively. Administering prophylactic antibiotics is a targeted approach to reducing the risk of infection in immunocompromised patients.
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Question 6
A nurse working an overnight hospital shift is administering medications to her patients. Which of these is the most important thing to do prior to giving medications to her patients?
A. Identify the patient by name and room number and match the information on the medication order.
B. Match the room and bed number to the room and bed number on the medication order.
C. Identify the patient by name and date of birth on the patient’s wristband and match it to the medication order.
D. Ask the patient his or her name and match it to the one on the medication order.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C. The nurse should identify the patient by name and date of birth on the patient's wristband and match it to the medication order. This is crucial for patient safety to ensure the right medication is given to the right patient. Matching the patient's information on the wristband with the medication order helps prevent medication errors. Option A only identifies the patient by name and room number, which may not be sufficient to ensure accuracy. Option B focuses on the room and bed number, which is less critical than confirming the patient's identity. Option D relies solely on asking the patient for their name, which is not as reliable as checking the wristband. Matching the patient's information on the wristband is the best practice to prevent medication errors and ensure patient safety.
Why is it important to feed newborn infants every few hours?
A. The hepatic capacity to store and synthesize glycogen and glucose is not adequate to maintain the plasma glucose concentration in a normal range for more than a few hours after feeding
B. If adequate fluid is not ingested frequently, the plasma protein concentration will rise to greater than normal levels within a few hours
C. The function of the gastrointestinal system is poorly developed and can be improved by keeping food in the stomach at all times
D. The hepatic capacity to form plasma proteins is minimal and requires the constant availability of amino acids from food to avoid hypoproteinemic edema
Correct answer:
Step 1: Newborn infants have limited hepatic capacity to store and synthesize glycogen and glucose.
Step 2: This limited capacity results in the plasma glucose concentration not being maintained in a normal range for more than a few hours after feeding.
Step 3: Feeding every few hours ensures a constant supply of glucose to maintain plasma glucose levels.
Step 4: Thus, it is important to feed newborn infants every few hours to prevent hypoglycemia.
Summary:
A: Correct - Maintaining plasma glucose levels due to limited hepatic capacity.
B: Incorrect - Protein concentration is not the primary concern for feeding frequency.
C: Incorrect - Keeping food in the stomach constantly does not improve gastrointestinal function.
D: Incorrect - Hypoproteinemic edema is not the primary reason for feeding frequency.
A 30 year old male is stabbed in the right chest. On arrival in the ED, he is very short of breath. His HR is 120 bpm, BP is 80/50. His neck veins are flat. On auscultation of the chest, there is diminished air entry on the right side, and there is dullness posteriorly on percussion. These findings are most consistent with:
A. Hemothorax
B. Pericardial tamponade
C. Tension pneumothorax
D. Hypovolemia from the liver injury
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Hemothorax. The clinical presentation of a 30-year-old male with shortness of breath, tachycardia, hypotension, diminished air entry, and dullness on percussion following a stab wound to the chest is most indicative of hemothorax. Hemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural space, leading to respiratory compromise and hemodynamic instability. The diminished air entry and dullness on percussion suggest the presence of blood in the pleural cavity, causing lung collapse. The absence of distended neck veins rules out pericardial tamponade. The absence of tracheal deviation and mediastinal shift rules out tension pneumothorax. Hypovolemia from a liver injury would not explain the localized findings in the chest. Therefore, hemothorax is the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.
The sterile nurse or sterile personnel touch only sterile supplies and instruments. When there is a need for sterile supply which is not in the sterile field, who hands out these items by opening its outer cover?
A. Circulating Nurse
B. Anaesthesiologist
C. Surgeon
D. Nursing Aide
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Circulating Nurse. The circulating nurse is responsible for handing out sterile supplies that are not within the sterile field by opening its outer cover. This is to maintain the sterility of the items being used in the surgical field. The circulating nurse's role is crucial in preventing contamination and ensuring patient safety during surgical procedures.
Summary:
- A: Circulating Nurse (Correct): Responsible for providing sterile supplies from outside the sterile field.
- B: Anaesthesiologist (Incorrect): Not typically responsible for handling sterile supplies.
- C: Surgeon (Incorrect): Focuses on the surgical procedure and does not usually handle sterile supplies.
- D: Nursing Aide (Incorrect): Not typically involved in handling sterile supplies during surgical procedures.
A nurse is caring for a client with a peripheral vascular access device who is experiencing pain, redness, and swelling at the site. After removing the device, what action will the nurse take to relieve pain?
A. Administer topical lidocaine to the site.
B. Place warm compresses on the site.
C. Administer prescribed oral pain medication.
D. Massage the site with scented oils.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Place warm compresses on the site. Warm compresses help to increase blood flow, promote healing, and reduce pain and swelling in the affected area. By applying warm compresses to the site, the nurse can help to alleviate the client's pain and discomfort.
Rationale for other choices:
A: Administer topical lidocaine to the site - Topical lidocaine may help with numbing the area but may not address the underlying issue of pain, redness, and swelling.
C: Administer prescribed oral pain medication - Oral pain medication may take time to take effect and may not provide immediate relief for the client's symptoms.
D: Massage the site with scented oils - Massaging the site with scented oils can potentially irritate the skin further and does not address the client's symptoms effectively.
A female patient is having a biopsy of a nodule found in the right breast. Which classification identifies this surgery?
A. Urgent
B. Minor
C. Cosmetic
D. Diagnostic
Correct answer:
A biopsy of a breast nodule is classified as diagnostic surgery because its purpose is to determine the nature of the nodule (e.g., benign or malignant). Urgent surgery implies immediate need due to life-threatening conditions, like appendicitis, which does not apply here. Minor surgery refers to low-risk procedures, but classification focuses on purpose, not complexity. Cosmetic surgery enhances appearance, irrelevant to a biopsy's diagnostic intent. The rationale lies in surgical classifications: diagnostic procedures gather information to guide treatment, distinct from curative, restorative, or palliative goals. A breast biopsy involves removing tissue for analysis, aligning with the diagnostic category, and is a critical step in cancer detection, emphasizing its investigative rather than therapeutic role.
A “birth control†compound for men has been sought for several decades. Which of the following would provide effective sterility?
A. Substance that mimics the actions of luteinizing hormone
B. Substance that blocks the actions of inhibin
C. Substance that blocks the actions of follicle-stimulating hormone
D. Substance that mimics the actions of gonadotropin-releasing hormone
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Substance that blocks the actions of follicle-stimulating hormone. By blocking the actions of FSH, sperm production in the testes would be inhibited, leading to effective sterility. FSH plays a crucial role in stimulating sperm production, so blocking its actions would prevent the development of mature sperm.
Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect:
A: Substance that mimics the actions of luteinizing hormone - Mimicking LH would not necessarily lead to effective sterility in men.
B: Substance that blocks the actions of inhibin - Inhibin regulates FSH secretion but blocking it would not directly lead to effective sterility.
D: Substance that mimics the actions of gonadotropin-releasing hormone - Mimicking GnRH would not directly impact sperm production and sterility.
One important thing for the nursing assistant to check when a resident is being discharged is
A. Whether the resident will have enough food and drink for the trip home
B. Whether the resident or his family knows the address of his physician
C. Whether the resident has had all of his tubes and dressings removed by the nurse
D. Whether the resident or his family has paid his bill in full
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C. It is crucial for the nursing assistant to check if the resident has had all tubes and dressings removed by the nurse before discharge to ensure the resident's safety and prevent any complications. This step is important to confirm that the resident is ready to leave the facility and does not have any medical devices or dressings that need attention.
Choice A is incorrect because the focus should be on the resident's medical needs, not just food and drink. Choice B is incorrect as knowing the address of the physician is important but not as critical as ensuring the resident's medical care needs are met before discharge. Choice D is incorrect as the payment of the bill is a separate administrative matter and does not relate directly to the resident's medical condition at discharge.
Which one of the following is recommended method for treating frostbite?
A. "Moist heat"
B. Early amputation
C. Padding and elevation
D. Vasodilators and heparin
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: "Moist heat" for treating frostbite. Moist heat helps to slowly rewarm the affected area, promoting blood flow and preventing further tissue damage. It is recommended to soak the frostbitten area in warm water (not hot) for about 20-30 minutes until normal color and sensation return.
Choice B: Early amputation is incorrect as it is an extreme measure and should only be considered as a last resort when there is no other option to save the limb.
Choice C: Padding and elevation can help reduce swelling and pain, but it is not the primary treatment for frostbite.
Choice D: Vasodilators and heparin are not recommended for treating frostbite as they may increase the risk of complications. It is crucial to prioritize rewarming the affected area with moist heat for proper treatment.
Which nursing intervention should be included in the care plan for a patient with anorexia nervosa who is at risk for refeeding syndrome?
A. Refeed with high-calorie foods initially.
B. Monitor serum electrolytes closely after refeeding begins.
C. Increase fluid intake gradually over several days.
D. Encourage early ambulation to prevent complications.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Monitor serum electrolytes closely after refeeding begins. Refeeding syndrome can occur in patients with anorexia nervosa when there is a rapid shift in electrolytes and fluid levels. Monitoring serum electrolytes closely after refeeding begins allows for early detection of any imbalances and prompt intervention. This helps prevent serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias or neurological issues.
Choice A is incorrect because refeeding with high-calorie foods initially can exacerbate the risk of refeeding syndrome due to rapid changes in electrolyte levels. Choice C is incorrect as increasing fluid intake gradually may not directly address electrolyte imbalances. Choice D is incorrect as encouraging early ambulation is not directly related to preventing refeeding syndrome.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 104 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
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