You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Which of the following actions by Florence Nightingale demonstrates her role as an epidemiologist?
A. She convinced other women to join her in giving nursing care to all the soldiers.
B. She demonstrated that a safer environment resulted in decreased mortality rat
D. She obtained safe water and better food supplies and fought the lice and rats.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — She demonstrated that a safer environment resulted in decreased mortality rat
Step 1: Florence Nightingale demonstrated that a safer environment resulted in decreased mortality rates through her work during the Crimean War.
Step 2: As an epidemiologist, she focused on preventing and controlling diseases within populations.
Step 3: By improving sanitation, ventilation, and hygiene practices in hospitals, Nightingale reduced the spread of infections.
Step 4: This approach aligns with the core principles of epidemiology, which aim to identify and address factors that influence the health of populations.
Step 5: Other choices are incorrect as they do not directly relate to epidemiological practices. Choice A focuses on nursing care, while Choice D addresses improving living conditions but not specifically related to epidemiology.
Summary: Florence Nightingale's demonstration of the impact of a safer environment on mortality rates exemplifies her role as an epidemiologist, aligning with the principles of preventing and controlling diseases within populations. Other choices lack this direct connection to epidemiological practices.
Question 2
A mentor is helping a protege move toward attainment of personal and professional goals. In which stage is the relationship?
A. Transition stage
B. Termination stage
C. Maturation stage
D. Relationship-building stage
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Maturation stage
The correct answer is C: Maturation stage. In this stage, the mentor-protege relationship has already been established and is progressing towards achieving the set goals. The mentor and protege have built trust, mutual respect, and are actively working together to support the protege's growth. This stage focuses on sustaining and enhancing the relationship to ensure continued progress and success.
A: Transition stage - This stage involves initial adjustments and getting to know each other. Since the question mentions the mentor is already helping the protege move towards goals, it is beyond the transition stage.
B: Termination stage - This stage marks the end of the mentor-protege relationship when goals have been achieved or the relationship is no longer needed. The question implies an ongoing relationship towards goals, so it is not the termination stage.
D: Relationship-building stage - This stage is focused on establishing trust and rapport at the beginning of the relationship. Since the mentor is already assisting the protege towards goals, it
Question 3
You work in the emergency department, and an 88-year-old Spanish-speaking patient was just brought by ambulance with chest pain. You do not speak Spanish and there is no in-person interpreter available. Your best option to ensure communication is:
A. Identify a friend or family member who can provide interpreter services. It's better to have someone in person.
B. Leverage technology to ensure communication. Your hospital recently invested in video interpreter services.
C. Use gestures, simple words, and a loud voice to work through the history and physical exam.
D. Call another floor and see if they have anyone who knows Spanish. The patient can probably wait for a while.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Leverage technology to ensure communication. Your hospital recently invested in video interpreter services.
The correct answer is B: Leverage technology to ensure communication. Your hospital recently invested in video interpreter services.
Rationale:
1. Utilizing technology like video interpreter services ensures accurate and real-time communication, overcoming language barriers effectively.
2. Video interpreter services provide professional interpreters who are trained in medical terminology, ensuring accurate transmission of information.
3. It maintains patient confidentiality and adheres to HIPAA regulations by using secure communication platforms.
4. It promotes cultural competency and patient-centered care by facilitating understanding and building trust with the patient.
Summary of other choices:
A: Identifying a friend or family member can compromise patient confidentiality and accuracy of interpretation.
C: Using gestures and simple words may lead to miscommunication, misunderstanding, and potential medical errors.
D: Delaying care by calling another floor for a Spanish speaker can jeopardize timely treatment for the patient's chest pain.
Question 4
You are the first ambulance to arrive on the scene of a single-car accident. As you approach the scene, you see four patients, two have been ejected from their vehicle, and two are still in the vehicle. What should be your next course of action?
A. Call medical control, and advise them of the situation
B. Request additional resources, such as fire rescue, and additional ambulances to respond to the scene
C. Begin immediate triage and treatment of the two patients ejected first while awaiting fire department response
D. Notify the local trauma center so they can prepare for the patients
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Request additional resources, such as fire rescue, and additional ambulances to respond to the scene
The correct answer is B: Request additional resources, such as fire rescue, and additional ambulances to respond to the scene. This is the best course of action because, in a single-car accident with multiple patients, the scene is likely to be complex and require additional resources to manage effectively. Requesting fire rescue can help with extrication of patients still in the vehicle, while additional ambulances ensure there are enough resources to transport all patients promptly. This approach prioritizes patient care and safety by ensuring all necessary resources are available to manage the situation efficiently.
Choice A: Calling medical control is important but should not be the first step in this scenario where immediate action is needed.
Choice C: Beginning immediate triage and treatment of the two ejected patients might overlook the need for additional resources and proper scene management.
Choice D: Notifying the local trauma center is important but should come after requesting additional resources to manage the scene effectively.
Question 5
In your role as a school nurse, you are performing a sports physical on a healthy adolescent girl who is planning to try out for the volleyball team. When it comes time to listen to the students heart and lungs, what is your best nursing action? s
A. Perform auscultation with the stethoscope placed firmly over her cloething to protect her privacy.
B. Perform auscultation by holding the diaphragm lightly on her clothing to eliminate the scratchy t
C. o
D. Performauscultationwiththediaphragmplacedfirmlyonherskintominimizeextranois
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Performauscultationwiththediaphragmplacedfirmlyonherskintominimizeextranois
The correct answer is D: Perform auscultation with the diaphragm placed firmly on her skin to minimize extraneous noise. This is the best nursing action because placing the diaphragm firmly on the skin allows for clear and accurate listening of heart and lung sounds without interference from clothing or external noises. By ensuring direct skin contact, the nurse can accurately assess the adolescent's cardiovascular and respiratory status.
Choice A is incorrect because listening through clothing can muffle or distort sounds, leading to inaccurate assessment. Choice B is incorrect as holding the diaphragm lightly on clothing can also lead to poor sound transmission and hinder proper assessment. Choice C is an incomplete option.
In summary, the correct answer, D, promotes accurate assessment by minimizing extraneous noise and ensuring optimal contact for clear auscultation of heart and lung sounds. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they may compromise the accuracy of the assessment by introducing interference and reducing clarity of the sounds.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.
Question 6
Which intervention can the nurse implement to reduce the spread of infectious disease in a correctional facility?
A. Encouraging daily handwashing
B. Asking about HIV status at intake to a correctional setting
C. Questioning people about sexual practices
D. Advocating for vaccination for hepatitis A and hepatitis B
Correct answer:
Step 1: Handwashing is a fundamental and effective measure to reduce the spread of infectious diseases.
Step 2: Encouraging daily handwashing can help prevent transmission of pathogens between individuals in close quarters.
Step 3: Proper hand hygiene is crucial in preventing the spread of infections like respiratory illnesses, gastrointestinal infections, and skin infections.
Step 4: HIV status, sexual practices, and vaccinations are important but are not as directly effective in reducing the immediate spread of infectious diseases in a correctional facility.
Summary:
A: Encouraging daily handwashing is directly effective in reducing the spread of infectious diseases within the facility.
B: Asking about HIV status is important for individual care but not as effective in preventing immediate spread.
C: Questioning about sexual practices is relevant for certain infections but may not address overall transmission.
D: Advocating for vaccination is important but takes time to be effective, whereas handwashing is an immediate preventive measure.
Healthy People 2020 goals directed at women’s health issues focus on which areas? (Select all that apply.)
A. Increased screening for cervical and colorectal cancers
B. Reduction of cancer survivor rate based on clinical management treatment
C. Decreased morbidity and mortality related to breast cancer
D. Reduction in hospitalization for hip fractures in the older female population
Correct answer:
Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct:
1. Healthy People 2020 aims to improve health outcomes and quality of life for all individuals.
2. Increased screening for cervical and colorectal cancers aligns with preventive care goals for women's health.
3. Early detection through screening can lead to better treatment outcomes and reduced mortality rates.
4. Regular screenings for these cancers can help in identifying and treating them at early stages.
5. Therefore, choice A is correct as it directly addresses preventive measures for women's health issues.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
B: Reduction of cancer survivor rate based on clinical management treatment - Incorrect, as the goal is to increase cancer survivor rates, not reduce them.
C: Decreased morbidity and mortality related to breast cancer - While important, this choice is not specific to Healthy People 2020 goals for women's health.
D: Reduction in hospitalization for hip fractures in the older female population - This choice is not directly related to women
A 58-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with a sensation of pelvic heaviness and states she feels like something is sitting in her vagina. On examination, the provider notes a visible protrusion of the bladder into the anterior vaginal wall. What structural disorder of the female reproductive system is consistent with these findings?
A. pelvic floor prolapse
B. DES exposure
C. vaginal septum
D. bladder fistula
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: pelvic floor prolapse. This condition is characterized by weakening of the pelvic floor muscles and ligaments, leading to descent of pelvic organs such as the bladder into the vagina. The patient's symptoms of pelvic heaviness and sensation of something in her vagina are classic signs of pelvic floor prolapse. Examination findings of visible protrusion of the bladder into the anterior vaginal wall further support this diagnosis.
Explanation of incorrect choices:
B: DES exposure - This is not a structural disorder of the female reproductive system. DES exposure is associated with adverse effects on reproductive health but does not present with visible bladder protrusion.
C: Vaginal septum - This is a congenital anomaly where the vagina is divided by a septum. It does not typically present with bladder protrusion.
D: Bladder fistula - This is an abnormal connection between the bladder and another structure. While it can cause urinary symptoms, it does not typically present with visible bladder protrusion into the vagina.
One of the primary reasons for conducting nursing research is to:
A. determine outcomes for clients.
B. prevent further disease and death.
C. quantify outcomes related to clients.
D. generate knowledge to guide practice.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: generate knowledge to guide practice. Nursing research aims to expand the knowledge base in the field, leading to evidence-based practice. By conducting research, nurses can identify best practices, improve patient outcomes, and enhance the quality of care provided. Research generates new knowledge that informs decision-making and shapes the direction of nursing practice.
A: determine outcomes for clients - While determining outcomes is important in nursing research, it is not the primary reason for conducting research. Research goes beyond just measuring outcomes to generate new knowledge.
B: prevent further disease and death - While research can contribute to preventing disease and improving health outcomes, the primary goal of nursing research is to generate knowledge rather than solely focusing on prevention.
C: quantify outcomes related to clients - Quantifying outcomes is a part of nursing research, but the main purpose is not just to measure outcomes but to generate knowledge that can be applied in practice.
A patient admitted 48 hours ago has a diagnosis of gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding and is receiving IV hydration and transfusions. When making rounds, the nurse observes the patient to be having a tonic clonic seizure. What may be the cause of the seizure?
A. Low blood counts as a result of bleeding
B. Alcohol withdrawal
C. Alkalosis
D. Inadequate nutrition
Correct answer:
Alcohol withdrawal symptoms can begin within a few hours of discontinuation of drinking and may continue for 3 to 10 days. Withdrawal symptoms may be severe and include visual and auditory hallucinations and tonic clonic seizures. The patient's admitting diagnosis, GI bleeding, may be associated with alcohol abuse. Denial is a common symptom associated with alcoholism, and the patient may not have been honest about alcohol intake when the health care provider took the history on admission. History may be obtained from the patient's family or significant other. It is unlikely that the blood loss is significant enough to induce seizures. Alkalosis is not likely the cause of seizures in this case; the patient is more likely to be acidotic from the combined dehydration and withdrawal. Common causes in the setting of alcohol withdrawal include alcoholic ketoacidosis and ingestion of alcohols or medications that result in metabolic acidosis (e.g., methanol, ethylene glycol, salicylate). Inadequate nutrition is not likely to cause seizures in this patient.
Which strategy should a nurse manager use to resolve a scheduling dispute between shifts?
A. Impose a new schedule unilaterally
B. Hold a team meeting to negotiate
C. Favor the day shift's preferences
D. Let the staff vote without guidance
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Hold a team meeting to negotiate. This strategy promotes open communication, collaboration, and shared decision-making among the staff members involved in the scheduling dispute. By holding a team meeting, the nurse manager can gather input from both shifts, address concerns, and reach a consensus that considers the needs and preferences of all staff members. This approach fosters a positive work environment, enhances teamwork, and promotes fairness in resolving conflicts.
Incorrect choices:
A: Impose a new schedule unilaterally - This option does not respect the input or concerns of the staff members involved, leading to potential resentment and decreased morale.
C: Favor the day shift's preferences - Showing favoritism towards one shift over the other can create tension and conflict among staff members, undermining team cohesion.
D: Let the staff vote without guidance - Allowing staff to vote without guidance may not address underlying issues or promote effective communication and collaboration in resolving the dispute.
Which of the following is a strategy for a nursing assistant to use for managing stress?
A. The NA should drink whenever it makes her feel more relaxed.
B. The NA should get enough sleep.
C. The NA should skip meals so she can get more done.
D. The NA should take regular smoking breaks.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: The NA should get enough sleep. Adequate sleep is essential for managing stress as it helps the body and mind recover, improve focus, and regulate emotions. It also boosts the immune system and overall well-being.
Explanation:
1. Sleep is crucial for stress management: Lack of sleep can increase stress levels and make it harder to cope with challenges.
2. Restorative benefits of sleep: Quality sleep allows the body to repair and regenerate, promoting physical and mental health.
3. Cognitive function and stress: Sufficient sleep enhances cognitive abilities, decision-making, and problem-solving skills, enabling better stress management.
4. Emotional regulation: Sleep plays a vital role in mood regulation, reducing irritability and emotional reactivity to stressors.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Drinking to relax can lead to dependency and worsen stress in the long run.
C: Skipping meals can disrupt energy levels, impair concentration, and increase stress due to nutritional deficiencies.
D: Smoking breaks may
A nurse is working with a perpetrator of family violence who has a long history of violent rages when frustrated, with periods of remorse after each outburst. The nurse is most likely to establish the nursing diagnosis of:
A. Risk for injury related to victim reprisal.
B. Risk for other-directed violence related to stress.
C. Ineffective coping related to poor anger management.
D. Caregiver role strain related to feelings of being overwhelmed.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Ineffective coping related to poor anger management. This nursing diagnosis is appropriate because it addresses the perpetrator's inability to manage their anger effectively, leading to violent outbursts. The perpetrator's history of violent rages and subsequent remorse suggest a pattern of maladaptive coping mechanisms. This diagnosis focuses on the underlying issue of poor anger management, which is essential to address in order to prevent future acts of violence.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect:
A: Risk for injury related to victim reprisal - This choice places the focus on potential harm to the victim as a result of retaliation, which is not the primary issue in this scenario.
B: Risk for other-directed violence related to stress - While stress may contribute to the perpetrator's behavior, the primary issue lies in their poor anger management rather than just stress.
D: Caregiver role strain related to feelings of being overwhelmed - This choice is not appropriate as it does not address the core issue of poor
Which of the following factors is NOT related to determinants of personality development?
A. Culture
B. Group
C. Environment
D. Nutrition
Correct answer:
Personality development is influenced by factors like culture, environment, and social groups, which shape an individual's traits and behaviors over time. 'Nutrition,' is correct as the answer because it is not a direct determinant of personality, though it impacts physical health. Culture (Choice A) defines values and norms that mold personality, as seen in cross-cultural psychology studies. Group (Choice B) refers to social interactions, such as peer influence, which shape traits, per social learning theory by Albert Bandura. Environment (Choice C) encompasses upbringing and surroundings, critical in Erik Erikson's psychosocial development stages. Nutrition, while essential for brain development and overall health, lacks a direct link to personality traits like extroversion or conscientiousness in psychological models, unlike the other options. Its effects are more physiological than psychological, making D the factor least related to personality development, consistent with established theories focusing on social and environmental influences.
A nurse is concerned about the high incidence of STDs in the community college population and sets up a special STD screening. Which of the following groups of students would be encouraged to attend? (Select all that apply.)
A. Sexually active students currently receiving treatment for an STD
B. Sexually active students who had been screened the previous year
C. Students who are not sexually active and do not plan to become sexually active
D. Students who are sexually active but never “go all the wayâ€Â
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A. Sexually active students currently receiving treatment for an STD should be encouraged to attend the STD screening because they are at high risk for having or transmitting STDs. They need regular monitoring and follow-up to ensure successful treatment and prevent the spread of infections.
Choice B is incorrect because students who had been screened the previous year may have engaged in risky behaviors since then and could have contracted an STD in the meantime. They should still attend for regular screening.
Choice C is incorrect because although these students may not currently be sexually active, their future sexual behavior is uncertain. Regular STD screenings are important for all sexually active individuals, regardless of their current activity.
Choice D is incorrect because even if students do not "go all the way," they can still be at risk for STDs through other sexual activities. Regular screenings are recommended for all sexually active individuals to ensure early detection and treatment of infections.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 7 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
