LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 106
LPN exams · fundamentals
LPN exams fundamentals practice questionsset 106
You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Before developing a procedure, a nurse reviews all current research-based literature on insertion of a nasogastric tube. What type of nursing will be practiced based on this review?
A. institutional practice
B. authoritative nursing
C. evidence-based nursing
D. fsimulated-based nursing
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — evidence-based nursing
The correct answer is C: evidence-based nursing. By reviewing research-based literature on nasogastric tube insertion, the nurse will base their practice on the best available evidence. This approach integrates clinical expertise, patient values, and the best research evidence to make decisions about patient care. Evidence-based nursing emphasizes using the most current and relevant research to inform practice, ensuring the delivery of high-quality, effective, and safe care.
A: Institutional practice does not necessarily involve the systematic review of research literature.
B: Authoritative nursing relies heavily on expert opinions rather than research evidence.
D: Fsimulated-based nursing is not a recognized term in nursing literature and does not emphasize the critical appraisal of research evidence.
Question 2
When involved in phase III drug evaluation studies, what responsibilities would the nurse have?
A. Working with animals who are given experimental drugs
B. Choosing appropriate patients to be involved in the drug study
C. Monitoring and observing patients closely for adverse effects
D. Conducting research to determine effectiveness of the drug
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Monitoring and observing patients closely for adverse effects
Phase III studies involve use of a drug in a vast clinical population in which patients are asked to record any symptoms they experience while taking the drugs. Nurses may be responsible for helping collect and analyze the information to be shared with the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) but would not conduct research independently because nurses do not prescribe medications. Use of animals in drug testing is done in the preclinical trials. Select patients who are involved in phase II studies to participate in studies where the participants have the disease the drug is intended to treat. These patients are monitored closely for drug action and adverse effects. Phase I studies involve healthy human volunteers who are usually paid for their participation. Nurses may observe for adverse effects and toxicity.
Question 3
Which of the following is an effect of regular ambulation?
A. Decreased sleep
B. Improved circulation
C. Reduced oxygen level
D. Slower elimination
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Improved circulation
The correct answer is B: Improved circulation. Regular ambulation, or walking, helps to increase blood flow throughout the body, which in turn enhances circulation. This is beneficial for overall health as it improves oxygen and nutrient delivery to tissues and organs. Increased circulation also helps in removing waste products and toxins from the body.
Choice A: Decreased sleep - Regular ambulation is not directly linked to decreased sleep. In fact, physical activity can promote better sleep quality.
Choice C: Reduced oxygen level - Regular ambulation actually increases oxygen levels in the body due to improved circulation.
Choice D: Slower elimination - Regular ambulation can actually aid in promoting regular bowel movements and faster elimination due to the movement stimulating the digestive system.
Question 4
The nurse is caring for a patient in the postanesthesia care unit. The patient has developed profuse bleeding from the surgical site, and the surgeon has determined the need to return to the operative area. This procedure would be classified as
A. Elective
B. Urgent
C. Emergency
D. Major
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Emergency
An emergency procedure is required immediately to save life or preserve function, as with profuse postoperative bleeding necessitating urgent return to the operating room to control hemorrhage. This life-threatening situation distinguishes it from elective procedures, chosen by patients for non-essential issues like cosmetic surgery, or urgent ones, needed for health but not immediate survival, such as tumor excision. Major procedures involve extensive reconstruction, like coronary bypass, but aren't defined by urgency. The rapid intervention here prevents hypovolemic shock or organ damage, reflecting the critical nature of emergency classification. The nurse's recognition ensures swift coordination, highlighting the priority of stabilizing the patient over less acute classifications, per surgical standards.
Question 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of heart failure. This admission is the client's third admission within 90 days. The nurse educates the client with the goal of preventing readmission. Which nursing activity for this client would represent tertiary level prevention?
A. Screening for early detection
B. Teaching about adhering to a low-sodium diet
C. Promoting health before diagnosis
D. Detecting disease early
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Teaching about adhering to a low-sodium diet
Tertiary prevention occurs post-diagnosis, aiming to reduce disability and optimize function, as with this heart failure client. Teaching about a low-sodium diet helps manage symptoms reducing fluid retention, easing heart strain preventing readmissions by enhancing self-care after treatment. Screening or early detection aligns with secondary prevention, identifying issues before symptoms escalate. Promoting health pre-diagnosis is primary prevention, averting illness onset. Here, the nurse targets rehabilitation, addressing an established condition to minimize complications like edema, common in heart failure's chronic cycle. This education empowers the client, aligning with tertiary care's focus on restoring maximal health, critical in nursing to break readmission patterns and support long-term stability.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.
Question 6
The nurse manager is planning a debriefing for several of the nurses after an IPFD. What should the manager expect?
A. The nurses will need to discuss fault in order to alleviate feelings of guilt.
B. During the debriefing, some nurses will complain of physical tension, headache, and insomnia.
C. The nurse caring for the patient will need to defend herself to the health-care provider.
D. The charge nurse will discuss the nurse’s documentation to prevent a lawsuit.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because after an incident like an IPFD (Injury, Poisoning, Fall, or Death), nurses may experience physical and emotional stress, leading to symptoms like tension, headache, and insomnia. This is a common response to traumatic events. The debriefing allows nurses to express their feelings and receive support.
Choice A is incorrect because discussions in the debriefing should focus on support and learning, not assigning blame or fault. Choice C is incorrect as defending oneself to a health-care provider is not the purpose of a debriefing and could be addressed separately if needed. Choice D is incorrect as the charge nurse discussing documentation to prevent a lawsuit is not the primary goal of a debriefing session, which is focused on emotional support and learning from the event.
The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism. Which diagnostic test is most definitive?
A. Chest X-ray.
B. D-dimer test.
C. Computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA).
D. Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA). This test is most definitive for diagnosing pulmonary embolism as it provides detailed images of the blood vessels in the lungs, allowing for visualization of any blockages. Step-by-step rationale: 1. CTPA is the gold standard diagnostic test for pulmonary embolism due to its high sensitivity and specificity. 2. It can accurately identify the location and size of the blood clot in the pulmonary arteries. 3. CTPA is non-invasive and can be performed quickly, making it a preferred choice in the acute setting. Summary: A (Chest X-ray) is not sensitive enough to diagnose pulmonary embolism. B (D-dimer test) is a screening tool but not definitive for diagnosis. D (V/Q scan) is an alternative test but CTPA is more accurate and widely used.
Which opioid analgesic provides symptomatic relief of pain, cough, and diarrhea?
A. Morphine
B. Codeine
C. Both Morphine and Codeine
D. Neither Morphine nor Codeine
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Both Morphine and Codeine. Opioids like morphine and codeine act on opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord to provide pain relief, suppress cough reflex, and slow down gut motility to relieve diarrhea. Morphine is a potent opioid used for moderate to severe pain, while codeine is a milder opioid often used for mild to moderate pain. Both drugs are known to provide relief for pain, cough, and diarrhea due to their shared pharmacological actions on the body. Therefore, the correct choice is C as both morphine and codeine are effective in providing symptomatic relief for pain, cough, and diarrhea. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the pharmacological properties of opioids like morphine and codeine in providing relief for these specific symptoms.
The nurse is providing preoperative care for a 7-year-old patient with a brain tumor. Which of the following is the priority intervention?
A. Assessing the child's level of consciousness
B. Providing a tour of the intensive care unit for the child and parents
C. Educating the child and parents about shunts
D. Having the child talk to another child who has had this surgery
Correct answer:
For a child with a brain tumor preoperatively, assessing level of consciousness (LOC) is the priority, as it monitors for increased intracranial pressure (ICP) from tumor mass effect vital signs like alertness or confusion shift rapidly and signal deterioration needing immediate action. No baseline data exists here, making LOC the first step in the nursing process to guide care. An ICU tour reduces anxiety but delays critical assessment. Shunt education applies post-diagnosis of hydrocephalus, not universally pre-op, and lacks urgency without LOC context. Peer support is psychosocial, not physiological, and secondary. LOC assessment aligns with ABCs (circulation includes cerebral perfusion), ensuring the nurse detects neurological decline early, a cornerstone of pediatric neuro-oncology care before surgery.
What condition would the nurse suspect in a patient with irregular menstrual cycles, obesity, and abnormal hair growth on the face?
A. endometriosis
B. hyperprolactinemia
C. polycystic ovary syndrome
D. hydrosalpinx
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). Irregular menstrual cycles, obesity, and abnormal hair growth are common symptoms of PCOS. PCOS is a hormonal disorder that affects women of reproductive age. Irregular menstrual cycles occur due to anovulation. Obesity is often associated with insulin resistance, a common feature of PCOS. Abnormal hair growth, known as hirsutism, is a result of elevated levels of male hormones (androgens). Endometriosis (A) is characterized by the presence of endometrial tissue outside the uterus, causing pelvic pain and infertility. Hyperprolactinemia (B) is an excess of prolactin hormone, leading to irregular menstrual cycles and milk production. Hydrosalpinx (D) is the accumulation of fluid in a fallopian tube, causing infertility but not the symptoms described.
Which dietary advice is most appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease?
A. Increase intake of fruits and vegetables
B. Limit intake of potassium-rich foods
C. Increase intake of dairy products
D. Reduce intake of protein-rich foods
Correct answer:
The most appropriate dietary advice for a client with chronic kidney disease is to limit intake of potassium-rich foods. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have difficulty filtering potassium from the blood, leading to high levels that can be harmful. Therefore, reducing potassium intake is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are not the best options for individuals with chronic kidney disease. Increasing intake of fruits and vegetables (choice A) may actually increase potassium consumption. Increasing intake of dairy products (choice C) can lead to higher phosphorus and potassium levels. Reducing protein-rich foods (choice D) is not the primary focus in the early stages of chronic kidney disease, as protein is necessary for overall health unless kidney function declines significantly.
A client with a new diagnosis of COPD is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?
A. You should increase your intake of high-calorie foods.
B. You should decrease your intake of high-protein foods.
C. You should avoid foods that contain lactose.
D. You should increase your intake of high-fiber foods.
Correct answer:
The correct statement to include in the teaching for a client with a new diagnosis of COPD is that they should increase their intake of high-calorie foods. This is important to help maintain energy levels and manage weight. COPD can lead to increased energy expenditure due to the increased work of breathing, making it crucial to consume adequate calories for energy. High-calorie foods can help prevent weight loss and support overall nutritional status in COPD patients. Choice B is incorrect because high-protein foods are important for maintaining muscle mass in COPD patients. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to avoid foods that contain lactose unless the client is lactose intolerant. Choice D is incorrect as increasing high-fiber foods may exacerbate symptoms like bloating and gas in COPD patients.
Four changes typically occur in groups experiencing intergroup conflict. These four changes are
A. Increased cohesion, increased loyalty, increased emphasis on task accomplishment, and acceptance of democratic leadership
B. Increased cohesion, increased loyalty, increased emphasis on task accomplishment, and acceptance of autocratic leadership
C. Increased cohesion, decreased loyalty, increased emphasis on task accomplishment, and acceptance of autocratic leadership
D. Decreased cohesion, decreased loyalty, decreased emphasis on task accomplishment, and acceptance of autocratic leadership
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because in intergroup conflict, cohesion and loyalty tend to increase as group members unite against the opposing group. Task accomplishment becomes more important as the group works together to overcome challenges. Acceptance of autocratic leadership often occurs as a way to streamline decision-making and maintain order in times of conflict.
Option A is incorrect because democratic leadership is less likely to be accepted in intergroup conflict where quick and decisive actions may be necessary. Option C is incorrect because decreased loyalty is unlikely when group members band together in conflict situations. Option D is incorrect because decreased cohesion and task focus are less likely to occur as the group typically becomes more united and goal-oriented in response to conflict.
When the mother's membranes rupture during active labor, the fetal heart rate should be observed for the occurrence of which periodic pattern?
A. Early decelerations
B. Variable decelerations
C. Nonperiodic accelerations
D. Increase in baseline variability
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Variable decelerations. When the mother's membranes rupture during active labor, variable decelerations should be observed in the fetal heart rate. This is because the rupture of membranes can lead to umbilical cord compression, causing variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate pattern. Variable decelerations are characterized by abrupt and visually apparent decreases in heart rate variability.
A: Early decelerations are usually associated with head compression during contractions and are benign.
C: Nonperiodic accelerations are not a typical pattern seen in response to ruptured membranes during labor.
D: An increase in baseline variability is a positive sign and does not specifically indicate the occurrence of variable decelerations related to umbilical cord compression.
A man who reports frequently experiencing premature ejaculation tells the nurse, 'I feel like such a failure. It's so awful for both me and my partner. Can you help me?' Select the nurse's best response.
A. Have you discussed this problem with your partner?
B. I can refer you to a practitioner who can help you with this problem.
C. Have you asked your health care provider for prescription medication?
D. There are several techniques described in this pamphlet that might be helpful.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because the nurse should refer the patient to a practitioner who specializes in treating premature ejaculation. This is the best response as it ensures the patient receives specialized care and treatment tailored to his needs. Referring to a specialist increases the likelihood of successful intervention and addresses the patient's concerns effectively.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A focuses on communication with the partner, which is important but not the primary intervention for premature ejaculation. Choice C suggests prescription medication without exploring other treatment options or assessing the patient's individual situation. Choice D provides general information without addressing the patient's emotional distress or offering specific help from a professional.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 106 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
