RN exams safety and infection control practice questions, set 8
RN exams · safety and infection control
RN exams safety and infection control practice questionsset 8
You stop the harm first: isolation, falls, equipment, and the order that keeps the unit safe. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five safety and infection control questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Which of the following is the best way for a home health nurse (HHN) to help a client who has right-sided paresis secondary to a stroke?
A. Arranging for private duty nurses to assist the client with daily needs
B. Assisting the client with activities of daily living (ADLs)
C. Teaching self-care to the client
D. Teaching the family to assist the client with ADLs
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Teaching self-care to the client
The correct answer is C: Teaching self-care to the client. This is because empowering the client to perform self-care tasks promotes independence and self-esteem. By teaching the client self-care techniques, the home health nurse helps the client regain control over their daily activities. This approach fosters self-reliance and encourages the client to actively participate in their own care, leading to better outcomes in rehabilitation.
Choice A is incorrect because relying solely on private duty nurses may hinder the client's independence and self-efficacy. Choice B is also not the best option as simply assisting the client with ADLs does not encourage the client to develop skills for self-care. Choice D is not ideal as it shifts the responsibility to the family rather than empowering the client directly. Ultimately, teaching self-care to the client is the most effective way to support their recovery and enhance their quality of life.
Question 2
The ANA code of nursing ethics articulates that the nurse 'promotes, advocates for, and strives to protect the health, safety, and rights of the patient.' This includes the protection of patient privacy. On the basis of this principle, if you participate in a public online social network such as Facebook, could you post images of a patient's x-ray film if you obscured or deleted all patient identifiers?
A. Yes, because patient privacy would not be violated since patient identifiers were removed
B. Yes, because respect for autonomy implies that you have the autonomy to decide what constitutes privacy
C. No, because, even though patient identifiers are removed, someone could identify the patient on the basis of other comments that you make online about his or her condition and your place of work
D. No, because the principle of justice requires you to allocate resources fairly
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — No, because, even though patient identifiers are removed, someone could identify the patient on the basis of other comments that you make online about his or her condition and your place of work
The correct answer is C: No, because, even though patient identifiers are removed, someone could identify the patient on the basis of other comments that you make online about his or her condition and your place of work.
Rationale:
1. The ANA code emphasizes protecting patient privacy.
2. Even if identifiers are removed, other information can identify the patient.
3. Posting x-ray images can lead to patient identification through contextual clues.
4. Disclosing patient information without consent violates privacy rights.
5. Upholding patient confidentiality is crucial in healthcare settings.
Summary:
Choice A is incorrect because patient identification is not solely based on identifiers. Choice B is incorrect as autonomy doesn't override patient privacy rights. Choice D is irrelevant to the question of patient privacy. Choice C is correct as it highlights the potential risk of patient identification despite removing identifiers.
Question 3
An individual who is trying to lose weight is dining out with friends. While looking at the menu, they notice that the restaurant includes calorie content with all menu items. How is this information likely to impact the individual's menu choices?
A. It is a barrier.
B. It is a cue to action.
C. It is an innovation.
D. It is perceived susceptibility.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — It is a cue to action.
The correct answer is B: It is a cue to action. When calorie content is provided on the menu, it serves as a cue to action for the individual trying to lose weight. This information prompts them to make more informed and healthier menu choices, helping them stay within their calorie goals. It encourages them to select lower-calorie options and be more mindful of their food choices.
A: It is a barrier - This is incorrect because calorie information typically serves as a helpful tool, not a barrier, in making healthier choices.
C: It is an innovation - This is incorrect because providing calorie content on menus is not necessarily an innovation, but rather a common practice in many restaurants.
D: It is perceived susceptibility - This is incorrect as perceived susceptibility refers to an individual's belief about their risk of a particular health issue, which is not directly related to the impact of calorie information on menu choices.
Question 4
According to research, what is the means through which an organization's safety promotion activities produce safer work behaviour?
A. safety compliance
B. safety participation
C. actual safety climate
D. perceived safety climate
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — actual safety climate
The correct answer is C: actual safety climate. Safety climate refers to the shared perceptions among employees regarding safety-related policies, procedures, and practices within an organization. Research has shown that a positive safety climate, where there is a strong emphasis on safety and employees feel supported in prioritizing safety, leads to safer work behaviors. Actual safety climate directly influences employees' attitudes and behaviors towards safety, ultimately impacting their actions in the workplace.
A: Safety compliance focuses more on following rules and regulations rather than creating a positive safety culture.
B: Safety participation is related to employees' involvement in safety activities, but it does not capture the overall safety culture within the organization.
D: Perceived safety climate is about employees' perceptions of safety, which may not always align with the actual safety practices and policies in place.
Question 5
Which of the following is the best way for a home health nurse (HHN) to help a client who has right-sided paresis secondary to a stroke?
A. Arranging for private duty nurses to assist the client with daily needs
B. Assisting the client with activities of daily living (ADLs)
C. Teaching self-care to the client
D. Teaching the family to assist the client with ADLs
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Teaching self-care to the client
The correct answer is C: Teaching self-care to the client. This is because empowering the client to perform self-care tasks promotes independence and self-esteem. By teaching the client self-care techniques, the home health nurse helps the client regain control over their daily activities. This approach fosters self-reliance and encourages the client to actively participate in their own care, leading to better outcomes in rehabilitation.
Choice A is incorrect because relying solely on private duty nurses may hinder the client's independence and self-efficacy. Choice B is also not the best option as simply assisting the client with ADLs does not encourage the client to develop skills for self-care. Choice D is not ideal as it shifts the responsibility to the family rather than empowering the client directly. Ultimately, teaching self-care to the client is the most effective way to support their recovery and enhance their quality of life.
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Question 6
The program chairperson sends a survey to collect data on how many nursing students work in the clinical setting. What type of research method is being used?
A. Qualitative
B. Quantitative
C. Meta-analysis
D. Longitudinal
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Quantitative. In this scenario, the program chairperson is collecting numerical data on the number of nursing students working in the clinical setting. Quantitative research involves collecting data in numerical form to analyze and draw statistical inferences. This method is suitable for studying relationships and patterns between variables.
A: Qualitative research focuses on gathering non-numerical, descriptive data to understand opinions, behaviors, and experiences.
C: Meta-analysis involves synthesizing results from multiple studies to draw conclusions about a specific research question.
D: Longitudinal research involves studying the same group of individuals over an extended period to track changes or trends.
In summary, the program chairperson's survey collecting numerical data on nursing students' clinical work aligns with the characteristics of quantitative research, making it the correct choice.
What basic model underlies most applications of behavioural programming in the workplace?
A. Trigger → Behaviour → Reward Test Bank to accompany Management of Occupational Health and Safety, 6e 10-1
B. Trigger → Consequence→ Behaviour
C. Antecedent → Behaviour → Consequence
D. Antecedent → Behaviour → Reward
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Antecedent → Behaviour → Consequence. This model is known as the ABC model of behavior analysis. The antecedent triggers the behavior, which is followed by a consequence. This model is widely used in behavioral programming in the workplace as it helps understand and modify employee behaviors effectively. The antecedent sets the stage for the behavior to occur, the behavior itself is the observable action, and the consequence reinforces or discourages the behavior.
Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect:
A: Trigger → Behaviour → Reward - This model does not include the consequence element, which is crucial in understanding behavior.
B: Trigger → Consequence → Behaviour - The consequence should follow the behavior, not come before it. This model is out of sequence.
D: Antecedent → Behaviour → Reward - This model misses the important step of analyzing the consequences of behavior.
An individual who is trying to lose weight is dining out with friends. While looking at the menu, they notice that the restaurant includes calorie content with all menu items. How is this information likely to impact the individual's menu choices?
A. It is a barrier.
B. It is a cue to action.
C. It is an innovation.
D. It is perceived susceptibility.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: It is a cue to action. When calorie content is provided on the menu, it serves as a cue to action for the individual trying to lose weight. This information prompts them to make more informed and healthier menu choices, helping them stay within their calorie goals. It encourages them to select lower-calorie options and be more mindful of their food choices.
A: It is a barrier - This is incorrect because calorie information typically serves as a helpful tool, not a barrier, in making healthier choices.
C: It is an innovation - This is incorrect because providing calorie content on menus is not necessarily an innovation, but rather a common practice in many restaurants.
D: It is perceived susceptibility - This is incorrect as perceived susceptibility refers to an individual's belief about their risk of a particular health issue, which is not directly related to the impact of calorie information on menu choices.
The nursing leadership role once the all-hazards preparedness plan is completed is to:
A. confirm that resources are allocated appropriately.
B. ensure that every facility department understands their role is a disaster situation.
C. establish goals for all-hazards preparedness.
D. provide rewards for the committee's accomplishments.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because once the all-hazards preparedness plan is completed, the nursing leadership role is to confirm that resources are allocated appropriately. This is crucial to ensure effective response to any disaster.
Explanation:
1. Confirming resource allocation ensures that necessary supplies, equipment, and personnel are in place.
2. It allows for a coordinated and efficient response in a disaster situation.
3. Nursing leadership plays a key role in overseeing resource management to address any gaps or deficiencies.
Summary of other choices:
B: Ensuring every department understands their role is important but not the primary role of nursing leadership post-plan completion.
C: Establishing goals is essential in preparedness, but resource allocation is more immediate post-plan completion.
D: Providing rewards is not the main focus post-plan completion; ensuring proper resource allocation is more critical.
Which of the following questions should be considered in the hospital gap analysis survey of safety and security readiness in the event of a disaster? (Select all that apply.)
A. Does the facility have a lockdown plan in case of emergency?
B. Does the facility have procedures in place for use of PPE?
C. Does the facility have a mechanism of tracking costs associated with the event?
D. Do you have a plan for allowing staff entry into the facility during an emergency?
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Does the facility have a lockdown plan in case of emergency? This question is crucial for assessing safety and security readiness during a disaster. A lockdown plan ensures the protection of patients, staff, and visitors in case of a security threat. It involves procedures for securing the facility, controlling access, and communicating effectively during emergencies.
B: Does the facility have procedures in place for the use of PPE? While important for general safety, this question is not directly related to security readiness during a disaster.
C: Does the facility have a mechanism for tracking costs associated with the event? Cost tracking is important but not directly related to assessing safety and security readiness.
D: Do you have a plan for allowing staff entry into the facility during an emergency? This question is more about access control than overall security readiness during a disaster.
In most ethical dilemmas in health care, the solution to the dilemma requires negotiation among members of the health care team. Why is the nurse's point of view valuable?
A. Nurses understand the principle of autonomy to guide respect for a patient's self-worth.
B. Nurses have a scope of practice that encourages their presence during ethical discussions.
C. Nurses develop a relationship with the patient that is unique among all professional health care providers.
D. The nurse's code of ethics recommends that a nurse be present at any ethical discussion about patient care.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because nurses develop a unique relationship with the patient, which allows them to provide valuable insights into the patient's preferences, values, and needs. This relationship enables nurses to advocate effectively for the patient's best interests and ensure that the patient's voice is heard in ethical discussions.
Choice A is incorrect because understanding the principle of autonomy is not unique to nurses and does not necessarily make their point of view more valuable in ethical dilemmas.
Choice B is also incorrect as the scope of practice does not inherently make the nurse's point of view more valuable in ethical discussions; it simply defines the tasks they are allowed to perform.
Choice D is incorrect because while the nurse's code of ethics may recommend their presence at ethical discussions, it does not inherently make their point of view more valuable than other healthcare team members.
The program chairperson sends a survey to collect data on how many nursing students work in the clinical setting. What type of research method is being used?
A. Qualitative
B. Quantitative
C. Meta-analysis
D. Longitudinal
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Quantitative. In this scenario, the program chairperson is collecting numerical data on the number of nursing students working in the clinical setting. Quantitative research involves collecting data in numerical form to analyze and draw statistical inferences. This method is suitable for studying relationships and patterns between variables.
A: Qualitative research focuses on gathering non-numerical, descriptive data to understand opinions, behaviors, and experiences.
C: Meta-analysis involves synthesizing results from multiple studies to draw conclusions about a specific research question.
D: Longitudinal research involves studying the same group of individuals over an extended period to track changes or trends.
In summary, the program chairperson's survey collecting numerical data on nursing students' clinical work aligns with the characteristics of quantitative research, making it the correct choice.
The ANA code of nursing ethics articulates that the nurse 'promotes, advocates for, and strives to protect the health, safety, and rights of the patient.' This includes the protection of patient privacy. On the basis of this principle, if you participate in a public online social network such as Facebook, could you post images of a patient's x-ray film if you obscured or deleted all patient identifiers?
A. Yes, because patient privacy would not be violated since patient identifiers were removed
B. Yes, because respect for autonomy implies that you have the autonomy to decide what constitutes privacy
C. No, because, even though patient identifiers are removed, someone could identify the patient on the basis of other comments that you make online about his or her condition and your place of work
D. No, because the principle of justice requires you to allocate resources fairly
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: No, because, even though patient identifiers are removed, someone could identify the patient on the basis of other comments that you make online about his or her condition and your place of work.
Rationale:
1. The ANA code emphasizes protecting patient privacy.
2. Even if identifiers are removed, other information can identify the patient.
3. Posting x-ray images can lead to patient identification through contextual clues.
4. Disclosing patient information without consent violates privacy rights.
5. Upholding patient confidentiality is crucial in healthcare settings.
Summary:
Choice A is incorrect because patient identification is not solely based on identifiers. Choice B is incorrect as autonomy doesn't override patient privacy rights. Choice D is irrelevant to the question of patient privacy. Choice C is correct as it highlights the potential risk of patient identification despite removing identifiers.
A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others. Which medication should a nurse expect a physician to order to address this type of symptom?
A. Haloperidol (Haldol) to address the negative symptom
B. Clonazepam (Klonopin) to address the positive symptom
C. Risperidone (Risperdal) to address the positive symptom
D. Clozapine (Clozaril) to address the negative symptom
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Risperidone (Risperdal) to address the positive symptom of auditory hallucinations in schizophrenia. Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic that is commonly used to treat both positive symptoms like hallucinations and negative symptoms like lack of motivation. It works by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, helping to reduce hallucinations and delusions.
A: Haloperidol (Haldol) is a typical antipsychotic that is more commonly used to address positive symptoms like hallucinations, rather than negative symptoms. It is not the best choice for addressing this specific symptom.
B: Clonazepam (Klonopin) is a benzodiazepine that is used to treat anxiety and seizures, not typically used to address positive symptoms of schizophrenia like hallucinations.
D: Clozapine (Clozaril) is an atypical antipsychotic that is more commonly used to address negative symptoms rather than positive symptoms like
After prolonged cardiopulmonary bypass, a patient develops increasing shortness of breath and hypoxemia. To determine whether the patient has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) or pulmonary edema caused by left ventricular failure, the nurse will anticipate assisting with
A. positioning the patient for a chest radiograph.
B. drawing blood for arterial blood gases.
C. obtaining a ventilation-perfusion scan.
D. inserting a pulmonary artery catheter.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D, inserting a pulmonary artery catheter. This is the most appropriate action to differentiate between ARDS and pulmonary edema caused by left ventricular failure. The pulmonary artery catheter can provide valuable information such as pulmonary artery pressure, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure, and cardiac output. In ARDS, the pulmonary artery pressure and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure are typically low, whereas in pulmonary edema due to left ventricular failure, these pressures are elevated.
Positioning the patient for a chest radiograph (A) would provide anatomical information but not differentiate between ARDS and pulmonary edema. Drawing blood for arterial blood gases (B) can provide information on oxygenation but may not be sufficient to differentiate between the two conditions. Obtaining a ventilation-perfusion scan (C) is not typically used to differentiate between ARDS and pulmonary edema.
About these RN exams safety and infection control questions
RN exams safety and infection control practice questions, set 8 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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