RN exams safety and infection control practice questions set 13

Correct answer:

The correct answer is A: Positive pressure ventilation. Positive pressure ventilation helps improve oxygenation by increasing the mean airway pressure, which helps recruit collapsed alveoli and improve ventilation-perfusion matching in the presence of an intrapulmonary shunt. This therapy can effectively increase the PaO2 levels in this patient. Choice B: Oxygen administration at a FIO2 of 100% may not be sufficient to overcome the intrapulmonary shunt and improve oxygenation significantly. Choice C: Administration of O2 per nasal cannula at 1 to 3 L/min may not provide enough oxygen to overcome the shunting effect and improve oxygenation adequately. Choice D: Clearance of airway secretions with coughing and suctioning may be beneficial for airway clearance but is not directly related to correcting the underlying oxygenation issue caused by the intrapulmonary shunt.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is D: Migration and urbanization. The Industrial Revolution led to rapid urbanization and migration as people moved from rural areas to cities for employment in factories. This caused a breakdown in traditional caregiving structures as families were separated, leading to inadequate care from families, friends, and neighbors. This shift in population dynamics disrupted the close-knit support systems that had previously existed in rural communities. Choice A (Ongoing wars) is incorrect because while wars could have strained caregiving resources, the primary reason for inadequacy during the Industrial Revolution was related to urbanization and migration. Choice C (Horrific plagues) is also incorrect as it refers to a different historical context and does not directly relate to the inadequacy of caregiving approaches during the Industrial Revolution.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is A: Handwashing before and after examination of clients. Handwashing is crucial in preventing the spread of infections as it helps eliminate germs on the hands. Before examining clients, handwashing reduces the risk of transferring pathogens from one client to another. After examination, it helps protect the client and the caregiver from potential infections. Choice B is not the best approach as gloves can sometimes create a false sense of security and may not be as effective as proper handwashing. Choice C may help prevent cross-contamination between client belongings and the nurse's bag but does not directly address infection prevention during care provision. Choice D is specific to certain types of examinations and may not be necessary for all client interactions. Handwashing remains the most effective and universal preventive measure.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is B. Taking a total of eight different medications during the day places the patient at risk for an adverse drug event due to the potential for drug interactions, side effects, and medication errors. With multiple medications, there is a higher risk of medication non-adherence and confusion. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Taking two medications for hypertension is a common practice and may not necessarily increase the risk of an adverse drug event. C: Having one physician who reviews all medications is a positive factor that can help prevent adverse drug events by ensuring proper coordination of care. D: The patient's health history of renal disease is important to consider when prescribing medications but does not directly place him at risk for an adverse drug event unless specific medications are contraindicated for renal disease.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is B: Approach the man and ask why he is making copies. This is the first action the nurse should take to immediately address the situation and gather more information. By approaching the man, the nurse can assess the situation directly and potentially stop any unauthorized access to the client's medical record. This action allows for a real-time response and may prevent any further breach of confidentiality. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Notifying hospital security as the first action may cause a delay in addressing the situation directly. C: Informing the nursing supervisor may be appropriate but should not be the first action as it does not address the immediate concern. D: Reporting the observation to the nurse caring for the client may not be effective in stopping the unauthorized access and protecting the client's confidentiality.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is B: Nonmaleficence. Nonmaleficence is the ethical principle of doing no harm. In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize relieving the client's pain and suffering, as alleviating pain is a fundamental aspect of nursing care. Administering the opioid pain medication PRN is aimed at providing comfort and improving the client's quality of life, not hastening death. By following the principle of nonmaleficence, the nurse is acting in the best interest of the client's well-being. A: Utilitarianism focuses on maximizing overall good for the majority, which may conflict with the individual client's well-being. C: Fidelity pertains to being faithful and keeping promises, but in this case, the priority is the client's comfort. D: Veracity is about truthfulness, which is important, but in this context, the focus is on pain management and comfort care.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is D: Nonmaleficence. The nurse is displaying the ethical principle of nonmaleficence by protecting the surgeon's right to privacy and confidentiality. By refusing to disclose the surgeon's medical diagnosis, the nurse is prioritizing the principle of doing no harm and preventing potential harm to the surgeon's well-being. This respects the surgeon's autonomy and confidentiality. Summary of other choices: A: Utility - This principle focuses on maximizing benefits for the greatest number of people. Not applicable in this scenario. B: Paternalism - This principle involves making decisions for someone else's best interest. Not applicable as the nurse is respecting the surgeon's autonomy. C: Justice - This principle involves fairness and equal treatment. Not relevant to the situation as it does not involve distribution of resources or treatment.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is D: Right supervision. The nurse checking in with assistive personnel to ensure tasks are completed is an example of proper supervision, which is one of the rights of delegation. Supervision involves overseeing and guiding the work of others to ensure tasks are being carried out correctly and safely. This helps maintain accountability and quality of care. Summary of other choices: A: Right circumstances - This refers to ensuring the task is appropriate for delegation based on factors such as patient condition and complexity. B: Right communication - This involves clear and effective communication of tasks, responsibilities, and expectations between the nurse and assistive personnel. C: Right person - This focuses on selecting the most qualified and competent individual to perform the delegated task based on their skill level and training.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is A because asking the child if the mouth is burning or if there is throat pain can help determine if a corrosive substance has been swallowed. Corrosive substances can cause immediate pain and burning sensation in the mouth and throat. This information is crucial for assessing the severity of the situation and providing appropriate care. Choice B is incorrect because taking the child's pulse and checking for breathing difficulties do not directly help in identifying if a corrosive substance has been ingested. Choice C is incorrect because the color of the child's lips and nails and voiding habits are not specific indicators of corrosive substance ingestion. Choice D is incorrect because symptoms like vomiting, diarrhea, and stomach cramps can be caused by various factors and may not specifically indicate ingestion of a corrosive substance.

Correct answer:

The correct answer is B. Taking a total of eight different medications during the day places the patient at risk for an adverse drug event due to the potential for drug interactions, side effects, and medication errors. With multiple medications, there is a higher risk of medication non-adherence and confusion. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Taking two medications for hypertension is a common practice and may not necessarily increase the risk of an adverse drug event. C: Having one physician who reviews all medications is a positive factor that can help prevent adverse drug events by ensuring proper coordination of care. D: The patient's health history of renal disease is important to consider when prescribing medications but does not directly place him at risk for an adverse drug event unless specific medications are contraindicated for renal disease.