RN exams safety and infection control practice questions, set 14
RN exams · safety and infection control
RN exams safety and infection control practice questionsset 14
You stop the harm first: isolation, falls, equipment, and the order that keeps the unit safe. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five safety and infection control questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
During controlling and evaluating phase, which one of the following is quality improvement method utilized by institutions.
A. Credentialing and licensing
B. Standards of care
C. Clinical pathways
D. Benchmarking
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Clinical pathways
During the controlling and evaluating phase, institutions utilize clinical pathways as a quality improvement method. Clinical pathways are structured multidisciplinary care plans detailing essential steps in the care of patients with a particular diagnosis or undergoing a specific procedure. These pathways help standardize care, reduce variations in practice, improve efficiency, and enhance patient outcomes. Credentialing and licensing ensure healthcare providers meet specific qualifications but are not directly related to quality improvement methods. Standards of care set expectations for the level of care provided, but they are not a method for improving quality. Benchmarking involves comparing performance metrics to industry standards or best practices, which can help identify areas for improvement but is not a method utilized during the controlling and evaluating phase specifically for quality improvement.
Question 2
Why is effective communication important in managing personnel?
A. It fosters influence and power
B. It promotes independence and collaboration
C. It motivates personnel to do their jobs well
D. All of the above
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — All of the above
Effective communication is crucial in managing personnel for a variety of reasons. Firstly, communication fosters influence and power by allowing managers to convey their expectations, vision, and goals clearly to their team members. Secondly, it promotes independence and collaboration by ensuring that employees have the necessary information and resources to carry out their tasks while also encouraging teamwork and cooperation. Lastly, communication motivates personnel to do their jobs well as clear and open communication can boost morale, engagement, and productivity. Therefore, all the options provided - fostering influence and power, promoting independence and collaboration, and motivating personnel - are essential aspects of why effective communication is important in managing personnel. This makes option D, 'All of the above,' the correct answer.
Question 3
Downward communication is outlined below. Which one is correct?
A. The communication is between two supervisors
B. The flow of communication is from the head nurse to supervisor
C. The flow of communication is from the chief nurse to the head nurse
D. The flow of communication is from the staff nurse to the chief nurse
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — The flow of communication is from the staff nurse to the chief nurse
Downward communication in an organizational hierarchy typically flows from higher levels of management to lower levels. In this case, the correct answer is D because the staff nurse, who is at a lower level in the hierarchy, communicates information to the chief nurse, who holds a higher position. This type of communication allows for instructions, guidance, feedback, and information to be disseminated from management to frontline employees. Options A and B are incorrect because they describe communication between peers or between individuals at the same hierarchical level. Option C is also incorrect as it portrays communication between two higher-level positions, which does not align with the concept of downward communication. Therefore, option D is the correct choice as it represents the typical flow of downward communication in an organization.
Question 4
Supervision and delegation fall to what phase of the management process?
A. Organizing
B. Directing
C. Controlling
D. Planning
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Directing
The correct answer is B: Directing. Supervision and delegation are key components of the directing phase of the management process. During the directing phase, managers guide and oversee employees to ensure tasks are being completed effectively and efficiently. Supervision involves closely monitoring and providing guidance to employees, while delegation involves assigning tasks and responsibilities to team members. Organizing (option A) is more focused on arranging resources and setting up the structure of the organization. Planning (option D) involves setting goals and determining the best course of action. Controlling (option C) involves monitoring performance and taking corrective actions to ensure goals are being met. Therefore, the most appropriate phase for supervision and delegation is the directing phase.
Question 5
The intensive care unit (ICU) nurse cares for a blind client, who is on contact precautions, maybe experiencing:
A. sensory deficit.
B. sensory overload.
C. sensory deprivation.
D. sensory overstimulation.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — sensory deprivation.
The correct answer is C: sensory deprivation. Sensory deprivation refers to the lack of meaningful stimuli to the senses, which can occur in a blind individual. In the ICU, the client's visual impairment, coupled with the need for contact precautions, restricts sensory input, leading to sensory deprivation. This can result in feelings of isolation, anxiety, and confusion.
Choice A, sensory deficit, refers to a general impairment in any of the senses, not necessarily related to the client's specific situation. Choice B, sensory overload, involves an excessive amount of sensory stimuli, which is unlikely in a visually impaired client. Choice D, sensory overstimulation, implies an overwhelming amount of sensory input, which is not the case for a blind client in the ICU.
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Question 6
The student nurse has earned 'As' in all of her prerequisite courses. For the first exam in a nursing course, she earns a 'D' and now feels that she may not be smart enough to become a nurse. What type of 'loss' is the student experiencing?
A. Actual loss.
B. Perceived loss.
C. Physical loss.
D. Situational loss.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Perceived loss. The student is experiencing a perceived loss because she believes she is not smart enough to become a nurse based on one exam grade. This type of loss is based on the student's perception or belief rather than an actual loss of a tangible item or ability. It is a subjective interpretation of the situation, leading to feelings of inadequacy.
A: Actual loss refers to a tangible loss of something concrete, which is not the case here.
C: Physical loss pertains to the loss of a physical object or ability, which is not applicable in this situation.
D: Situational loss involves a loss due to a specific situation or event, but in this case, the loss is more about the student's perception of her ability rather than a situational factor.
A nurse is participating in a disaster simulation in which a toxic substance is released into a crowded stadium. Multiple clients are transported to the facility. Which of the following activities would be the lowest priority for the nurse?
A. A. Preventing cross-contamination of clients
B. B. Performing concise client assessment
C. C. Transferring a client to the discharge location
D. D. Maintaining a client tracking system
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C. Transferring a client to the discharge location would be the lowest priority for the nurse during a disaster simulation. Priority should be given to immediate actions that ensure the safety and well-being of all clients. Here's a step-by-step rationale:
1. Preventing cross-contamination (choice A) is crucial to prevent the spread of the toxic substance.
2. Performing concise client assessment (choice B) is essential to identify and prioritize care for clients based on their needs.
3. Maintaining a client tracking system (choice D) is vital for ensuring accountability and continuity of care.
4. Transferring a client to the discharge location (choice C) can be delayed as it is not immediately life-threatening or crucial for the initial response.
The intensive care unit (ICU) nurse cares for a blind client, who is on contact precautions, maybe experiencing:
A. sensory deficit.
B. sensory overload.
C. sensory deprivation.
D. sensory overstimulation.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: sensory deprivation. Sensory deprivation refers to the lack of meaningful stimuli to the senses, which can occur in a blind individual. In the ICU, the client's visual impairment, coupled with the need for contact precautions, restricts sensory input, leading to sensory deprivation. This can result in feelings of isolation, anxiety, and confusion.
Choice A, sensory deficit, refers to a general impairment in any of the senses, not necessarily related to the client's specific situation. Choice B, sensory overload, involves an excessive amount of sensory stimuli, which is unlikely in a visually impaired client. Choice D, sensory overstimulation, implies an overwhelming amount of sensory input, which is not the case for a blind client in the ICU.
An older individual attends an exercise class in the community's parks and recreation facility at the recommendation of their primary provider. At a follow-up appointment, the client tells the nurse in the primary care office that they are unable to perform several of the exercises due to problems with vertigo and have stopped attending the classes. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing which type of negative enabling factor?
A. Accessibility of services
B. Availability of resources
C. Community and/or government laws/policies
D. Issue-related skills
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Accessibility of services. In this scenario, the individual is unable to attend exercise classes due to vertigo, indicating a barrier in accessing the services. The client wants to participate, but physical limitations prevent them. This negatively impacts their ability to benefit from the recommended program. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the individual's inability to access the services due to a health-related issue. Availability of resources (B) refers to the presence of necessary tools or materials, not the individual's physical condition. Community and government laws/policies (C) and issue-related skills (D) are not the primary factors hindering the individual's participation in the exercise class.
An older individual attends an exercise class in the community's parks and recreation facility at the recommendation of their primary provider. At a follow-up appointment, the client tells the nurse in the primary care office that they are unable to perform several of the exercises due to problems with vertigo and have stopped attending the classes. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing which type of negative enabling factor?
A. Accessibility of services
B. Availability of resources
C. Community and/or government laws/policies
D. Issue-related skills
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Accessibility of services. In this scenario, the individual is unable to attend exercise classes due to vertigo, indicating a barrier in accessing the services. The client wants to participate, but physical limitations prevent them. This negatively impacts their ability to benefit from the recommended program. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the individual's inability to access the services due to a health-related issue. Availability of resources (B) refers to the presence of necessary tools or materials, not the individual's physical condition. Community and government laws/policies (C) and issue-related skills (D) are not the primary factors hindering the individual's participation in the exercise class.
How can HRMs ensure that employees utilize the knowledge and skills gained during training and consistently perform their work duties in a safe manner?
A. by installing surveillance cameras
B. by providing rewards for reporting unsafe behaviour
C. by building a safety culture and safety leadership
D. by rewarding reductions in incidents and injuries
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because building a safety culture and safety leadership is essential for ensuring employees utilize their training effectively and perform their duties safely. By fostering a culture that values safety, employees are more likely to internalize safety practices and make them a priority in their work. Safety leadership sets the tone from the top, influencing employee behavior and attitudes towards safety.
Choice A (surveillance cameras) focuses on monitoring rather than proactive prevention.
Choice B (rewards for reporting unsafe behavior) may encourage reporting but does not address overall safety performance.
Choice D (rewarding reductions in incidents) is reactive and does not emphasize the importance of ongoing safety practices and culture.
The first thing that you should do immediately after a client accident is to:
A. Notify the doctor.
B. Render care.
C. Assess the client.
D. Notify the nurse manager.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Assess the client. This is the first crucial step after an accident to ensure the client's immediate safety and well-being. By assessing the client, you can quickly identify any injuries or medical conditions that require immediate attention. This step helps in determining the appropriate course of action, whether to render care, notify the doctor, or inform the nurse manager.
Choice A (Notify the doctor) is incorrect as assessing the client's condition should precede contacting the doctor. Choice B (Render care) is also incorrect because without proper assessment, providing care may lead to further harm. Choice D (Notify the nurse manager) is not the immediate priority compared to assessing the client's condition for timely intervention.
“FISH†makes it easy to detect chromosome rearrangements because
A. FISH probes only bind to rearranged chromosomes
B. FISH probes cause rearranged chromosomes to have unique colors
C. Chromosomes with rearrangements change color at the “breakpoints†when analyzed by FISH
D. Because FISH are full of rearranged chromosomes
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because during Fluorescent In Situ Hybridization (FISH), the fluorescent probes specifically bind to target DNA sequences on chromosomes. When there is a rearrangement, the probes will separate or change color at the breakpoints, indicating the presence of a chromosomal rearrangement. This makes it easy to detect the location and extent of the rearrangement.
Choice A is incorrect because FISH probes can bind to both normal and rearranged chromosomes. Choice B is incorrect because FISH probes do not cause chromosomes to change color; they simply show the presence of rearrangements through color separation. Choice D is incorrect because FISH probes are not full of rearranged chromosomes; they are used to detect rearrangements on chromosomes.
The nurse auscultates an extra sound over the left lower lobe. The nurse should:
A. document finding.
B. ask client to cough.
C. reassess in one hour.
D. notify healthcare provider (HCP).
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: notify healthcare provider (HCP). This is the most appropriate action as hearing an extra sound could indicate a potential abnormality such as a crackle or wheeze. Notifying the HCP promptly allows for further assessment and appropriate intervention if needed.
Choice A: Documenting the finding is important, but not the most immediate action when an abnormal sound is heard.
Choice B: Asking the client to cough may not address the underlying cause of the extra sound and delay necessary intervention.
Choice C: Reassessing in one hour could be too delayed for a potentially serious issue and may lead to worsening of the condition.
Therefore, notifying the HCP is the best course of action for timely intervention and ensuring patient safety.
A nurse is caring for a client who is dying of metastatic breast cancer. She has a prescription for an opioid pain medication PRN. The nurse is concerned that administering a dose of pain medication might hasten the client's death. Which of the following ethical principles should the nurse use to support the decision not to administer the medication?
A. Utilitarianism
B. Nonmaleficence
C. Fidelity
D. Veracity
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Nonmaleficence. Nonmaleficence is the ethical principle of doing no harm. In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize relieving the client's pain and suffering while ensuring that the medication does not cause harm or hasten death. Administering pain medication to provide comfort aligns with the principle of nonmaleficence.
A: Utilitarianism focuses on maximizing overall good for the majority, which may conflict with the individual's well-being in this case.
C: Fidelity relates to being faithful and keeping promises, which is not directly applicable to the situation of pain management.
D: Veracity pertains to truth-telling, which is important in communication but not directly relevant to the decision of administering pain medication.
About these RN exams safety and infection control questions
RN exams safety and infection control practice questions, set 14 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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