RN exams safety and infection control practice questions, set 7
RN exams · safety and infection control
RN exams safety and infection control practice questionsset 7
You stop the harm first: isolation, falls, equipment, and the order that keeps the unit safe. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five safety and infection control questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Which activity would the community nurse perform during the recovery phase of the disaster management cycle?
A. Performing triage and emergency care
B. Educating families on disaster preparedness
C. Reducing the spread of communicable disease
D. Performing triage and transport victims to services
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Reducing the spread of communicable disease
During the recovery phase of the disaster management cycle, the community nurse would focus on reducing the spread of communicable diseases. This is because in the aftermath of a disaster, there is an increased risk of disease outbreaks due to compromised sanitation and living conditions. By implementing measures such as vaccination campaigns, promoting hygiene practices, and monitoring for disease symptoms, the nurse can help prevent the spread of communicable diseases and protect the community's health.
- Choice A: Performing triage and emergency care is typically done during the response phase to address immediate medical needs.
- Choice B: Educating families on disaster preparedness is important during the preparedness phase to help communities be better equipped for future disasters.
- Choice D: Performing triage and transporting victims is also part of the response phase to provide immediate medical attention and transfer to appropriate services.
Question 2
A child's immunization may cause discomfort during administration, but the benefits of protection from disease, both for the individual and society, outweigh the temporary discomforts. Which principle is involved in this situation?
A. Fidelity
B. Beneficence
C. Nonmaleficence
D. Respect for autonomy
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Beneficence
The correct principle involved in this situation is beneficence. Beneficence is the ethical principle that emphasizes the duty to do good and promote the well-being of others. In this case, the administration of immunizations may cause discomfort to the child, but the benefits of protection from diseases outweigh this temporary discomfort. By choosing to immunize the child, the healthcare provider is acting in the child's best interest to prevent future harm from potentially deadly diseases. This decision aligns with the principle of beneficence.
A: Fidelity pertains to being faithful and keeping promises, which is not directly relevant to this situation.
C: Nonmaleficence is the principle of doing no harm, but in this case, the temporary discomfort of immunization is outweighed by the long-term benefits.
D: Respect for autonomy refers to respecting an individual's right to make their own decisions, which is not the primary focus in this scenario.
Question 3
The nurse is completing a health history with the daughter of a newly admitted patient who is confused and agitated. The daughter reports that her mother was diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease 1 year ago but became extremely confused last evening and was hallucinating. She was unable to calm her, and her mother thought she was a stranger. On the basis of this history, the nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing:
A. Delirium.
B. Depression.
C. New-onset dementia.
D. Worsening dementia.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Delirium.
Step 1: Delirium is characterized by acute onset confusion, agitation, hallucinations, and disorientation, which align with the patient's symptoms.
Step 2: The patient's sudden change in mental status suggests an acute condition rather than a chronic one like dementia.
Step 3: The inability to recognize her daughter and mistaking her for a stranger are typical features of delirium.
Step 4: The daughter's report of sudden confusion and hallucinations points towards delirium rather than worsening dementia or new-onset dementia.
Step 5: Therefore, based on the acute onset of symptoms and the patient's confusion and hallucinations, the nurse correctly suspects delirium.
Summary:
- B: Depression does not typically present with acute confusion, hallucinations, and disorientation.
- C: New-onset dementia would not manifest suddenly with confusion and hallucinations.
- D: Worsening dementia would show a gradual decline rather than a sudden onset of symptoms.
Question 4
There is great variation among individual responses to the same stressor. In addition to age, nutritional status, and genetic inheritance, which additional factor influences the expression of stress response and reflects the complex psychological processing involved?
A. The type of stressor.
B. The amount of stress.
C. The context of the stressful event.
D. The individual's appraisal of the stressor.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — The individual's appraisal of the stressor.
The correct answer is D: The individual's appraisal of the stressor. This is because how an individual perceives and evaluates a stressor determines their emotional and physiological response. Appraisal involves assessing the significance of the stressor in relation to one's goals, resources, and beliefs. Different individuals may appraise the same stressor differently, leading to varied stress responses.
A: The type of stressor is not the most influential factor in determining individual responses to stress, as people can have different reactions to the same stressor based on their appraisal of it.
B: The amount of stress does not solely determine the response, as two individuals may experience the same level of stress but react differently based on their appraisal.
C: The context of the stressful event is important, but again, it is the individual's interpretation and appraisal of the context that primarily influences their response to stress.
Question 5
Which of the following organizations would direct nurses' response to a countywide disaster?
A. American Red Cross
B. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
C. Emergency Management Agency
D. The local public health department
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Emergency Management Agency
The first level of disaster response occurs at the local level with the mobilization of responders such as the fire department, law enforcement, public health, and emergency services. If the disaster stretches local resources, the county or city emergency management agency (EMA) will coordinate activities through an emergency operations center (EOC). Generally, local responders within a county sign a regional or statewide mutual aid agreement to allow the sharing of needed personnel, equipment, services, and supplies. The American Red Cross may assist with disaster relief efforts, but this would not be the agency that would direct the response by nurses. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention is a national agency and would most likely not be involved with a county-wide disaster. The local public health department may be involved in responding to the disaster, but this would not be the organization that is responsible for leading the response.
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Question 6
Which of the following organizations would direct nurses' response to a countywide disaster?
A. American Red Cross
B. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
C. Emergency Management Agency
D. The local public health department
Correct answer:
The first level of disaster response occurs at the local level with the mobilization of responders such as the fire department, law enforcement, public health, and emergency services. If the disaster stretches local resources, the county or city emergency management agency (EMA) will coordinate activities through an emergency operations center (EOC). Generally, local responders within a county sign a regional or statewide mutual aid agreement to allow the sharing of needed personnel, equipment, services, and supplies. The American Red Cross may assist with disaster relief efforts, but this would not be the agency that would direct the response by nurses. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention is a national agency and would most likely not be involved with a county-wide disaster. The local public health department may be involved in responding to the disaster, but this would not be the organization that is responsible for leading the response.
A child's immunization may cause discomfort during administration, but the benefits of protection from disease, both for the individual and society, outweigh the temporary discomforts. Which principle is involved in this situation?
A. Fidelity
B. Beneficence
C. Nonmaleficence
D. Respect for autonomy
Correct answer:
The correct principle involved in this situation is beneficence. Beneficence is the ethical principle that emphasizes the duty to do good and promote the well-being of others. In this case, the administration of immunizations may cause discomfort to the child, but the benefits of protection from diseases outweigh this temporary discomfort. By choosing to immunize the child, the healthcare provider is acting in the child's best interest to prevent future harm from potentially deadly diseases. This decision aligns with the principle of beneficence.
A: Fidelity pertains to being faithful and keeping promises, which is not directly relevant to this situation.
C: Nonmaleficence is the principle of doing no harm, but in this case, the temporary discomfort of immunization is outweighed by the long-term benefits.
D: Respect for autonomy refers to respecting an individual's right to make their own decisions, which is not the primary focus in this scenario.
There is great variation among individual responses to the same stressor. In addition to age, nutritional status, and genetic inheritance, which additional factor influences the expression of stress response and reflects the complex psychological processing involved?
A. The type of stressor.
B. The amount of stress.
C. The context of the stressful event.
D. The individual's appraisal of the stressor.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: The individual's appraisal of the stressor. This is because how an individual perceives and evaluates a stressor determines their emotional and physiological response. Appraisal involves assessing the significance of the stressor in relation to one's goals, resources, and beliefs. Different individuals may appraise the same stressor differently, leading to varied stress responses.
A: The type of stressor is not the most influential factor in determining individual responses to stress, as people can have different reactions to the same stressor based on their appraisal of it.
B: The amount of stress does not solely determine the response, as two individuals may experience the same level of stress but react differently based on their appraisal.
C: The context of the stressful event is important, but again, it is the individual's interpretation and appraisal of the context that primarily influences their response to stress.
A nurse is serving on a continuous quality improvement (CQI) committee that has been assigned to develop a program to reduce the number of medication administration errors following a sentinel event at the facility. Which of the following strategies should the committee plan to initiate first?
A. Provide an inservice on medication administration to all the nurses.
B. Require staff nurses to demonstrate competency by passing a medication administration examination.
C. Review the events leading up to each medication administration error.
D. Develop a quality improvement program for nurses involved in medication administration errors.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Review the events leading up to each medication administration error. This strategy should be initiated first because it focuses on identifying the root causes of the errors. By reviewing the events, the committee can understand why the errors occurred and implement targeted interventions to prevent them in the future. This proactive approach addresses the underlying issues in the medication administration process, leading to sustainable improvements.
Choice A is incorrect because providing an inservice on medication administration to all nurses may not address the specific causes of the errors. Choice B is incorrect as requiring staff nurses to pass an examination may not necessarily prevent errors if the underlying system issues are not addressed. Choice D is also incorrect as developing a quality improvement program for nurses involved in errors is reactive rather than proactive, and does not prevent future errors.
A nurse is serving on a continuous quality improvement (CQI) committee that has been assigned to develop a program to reduce the number of medication administration errors following a sentinel event at the facility. Which of the following strategies should the committee plan to initiate first?
A. Provide an inservice on medication administration to all the nurses.
B. Require staff nurses to demonstrate competency by passing a medication administration examination.
C. Review the events leading up to each medication administration error.
D. Develop a quality improvement program for nurses involved in medication administration errors.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Review the events leading up to each medication administration error. This strategy should be initiated first because it focuses on identifying the root causes of the errors. By reviewing the events, the committee can understand why the errors occurred and implement targeted interventions to prevent them in the future. This proactive approach addresses the underlying issues in the medication administration process, leading to sustainable improvements.
Choice A is incorrect because providing an inservice on medication administration to all nurses may not address the specific causes of the errors. Choice B is incorrect as requiring staff nurses to pass an examination may not necessarily prevent errors if the underlying system issues are not addressed. Choice D is also incorrect as developing a quality improvement program for nurses involved in errors is reactive rather than proactive, and does not prevent future errors.
A nurse is triaging clients in the emergency department. Which of the following clients should the nurse ask the provider to care for first?
A. A toddler who has asthma and has a pulse oximetry reading of 95% while receiving oxygen at 2 L/min
B. A toddler who has otitis media, a temperature of 39.2° C (102.6° F), and purulent ear discharge
C. A school-age child who has acute epiglottitis, is drooling, and has an absence of spontaneous cough
D. An adolescent who has sickle cell disease, reports pain as 7 on a scale of 0 to 10, and requests pain medication
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C. The school-age child with acute epiglottitis should be cared for first due to the potential for airway compromise and respiratory distress, as evidenced by drooling and absence of spontaneous cough. This is an emergency situation that requires immediate intervention to prevent airway obstruction and ensure adequate oxygenation.
Choice A is not the priority as a pulse oximetry reading of 95% is adequate, and the child is already receiving oxygen. Choice B, the toddler with otitis media, can be managed with antipyretics and antibiotics for the ear infection but does not have an immediate life-threatening condition. Choice D, the adolescent with sickle cell disease and pain, should receive pain medication but does not have an acute airway emergency like the child with epiglottitis. It is crucial to prioritize care based on the urgency and potential severity of the condition to ensure the best outcomes for the patients.
A nurse who is leading a team of nurse managers is planning to make a major announcement. The nurse should use which of the following nonverbal communication techniques to enhance the importance of the announcement?
A. Sit in front of the group for the meeting and then stand for the announcement.
B. Cross her arms over her chest when beginning the announcement.
C. Stare at the people the announcement will affect the most.
D. Lean gently over the back of a chair sitting to one side of the room when making the announcement.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because standing up during the announcement can effectively signal to the team that something important is about to be shared. By changing position from sitting to standing, the nurse can capture the attention of the group and signal a shift in focus. This nonverbal cue can help to emphasize the importance of the announcement and create a sense of anticipation among the team members.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not effectively enhance the importance of the announcement. Crossing arms over the chest (B) can convey defensiveness or closed-off body language, which may not be conducive to fostering a positive reception to the message. Staring at individuals (C) can come across as aggressive or confrontational, potentially causing discomfort or resistance among the team. Leaning over the back of a chair (D) may appear casual or lack the gravitas needed to convey the significance of the announcement.
A nurse is triaging clients in the emergency department. Which of the following clients should the nurse ask the provider to care for first?
A. A toddler who has asthma and has a pulse oximetry reading of 95% while receiving oxygen at 2 L/min
B. A toddler who has otitis media, a temperature of 39.2° C (102.6° F), and purulent ear discharge
C. A school-age child who has acute epiglottitis, is drooling, and has an absence of spontaneous cough
D. An adolescent who has sickle cell disease, reports pain as 7 on a scale of 0 to 10, and requests pain medication
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C. The school-age child with acute epiglottitis should be cared for first due to the potential for airway compromise and respiratory distress, as evidenced by drooling and absence of spontaneous cough. This is an emergency situation that requires immediate intervention to prevent airway obstruction and ensure adequate oxygenation.
Choice A is not the priority as a pulse oximetry reading of 95% is adequate, and the child is already receiving oxygen. Choice B, the toddler with otitis media, can be managed with antipyretics and antibiotics for the ear infection but does not have an immediate life-threatening condition. Choice D, the adolescent with sickle cell disease and pain, should receive pain medication but does not have an acute airway emergency like the child with epiglottitis. It is crucial to prioritize care based on the urgency and potential severity of the condition to ensure the best outcomes for the patients.
According to research, what is the means through which an organization's safety promotion activities produce safer work behaviour?
A. safety compliance
B. safety participation
C. actual safety climate
D. perceived safety climate
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: actual safety climate. Safety climate refers to the shared perceptions among employees regarding safety-related policies, procedures, and practices within an organization. Research has shown that a positive safety climate, where there is a strong emphasis on safety and employees feel supported in prioritizing safety, leads to safer work behaviors. Actual safety climate directly influences employees' attitudes and behaviors towards safety, ultimately impacting their actions in the workplace.
A: Safety compliance focuses more on following rules and regulations rather than creating a positive safety culture.
B: Safety participation is related to employees' involvement in safety activities, but it does not capture the overall safety culture within the organization.
D: Perceived safety climate is about employees' perceptions of safety, which may not always align with the actual safety practices and policies in place.
A nurse who is leading a team of nurse managers is planning to make a major announcement. The nurse should use which of the following nonverbal communication techniques to enhance the importance of the announcement?
A. Sit in front of the group for the meeting and then stand for the announcement.
B. Cross her arms over her chest when beginning the announcement.
C. Stare at the people the announcement will affect the most.
D. Lean gently over the back of a chair sitting to one side of the room when making the announcement.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because standing up during the announcement can effectively signal to the team that something important is about to be shared. By changing position from sitting to standing, the nurse can capture the attention of the group and signal a shift in focus. This nonverbal cue can help to emphasize the importance of the announcement and create a sense of anticipation among the team members.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not effectively enhance the importance of the announcement. Crossing arms over the chest (B) can convey defensiveness or closed-off body language, which may not be conducive to fostering a positive reception to the message. Staring at individuals (C) can come across as aggressive or confrontational, potentially causing discomfort or resistance among the team. Leaning over the back of a chair (D) may appear casual or lack the gravitas needed to convey the significance of the announcement.
About these RN exams safety and infection control questions
RN exams safety and infection control practice questions, set 7 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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