RN exams safety and infection control practice questions, set 6
RN exams · safety and infection control
RN exams safety and infection control practice questionsset 6
You stop the harm first: isolation, falls, equipment, and the order that keeps the unit safe. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five safety and infection control questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A nurse is providing care for a surgeon on a medical-surgical unit. A nurse from another unit asks the nurse about the surgeon's medical diagnosis. The nurse responds that he is unable to provide the information requested. The nurse is displaying which of the following ethical principles?
A. Utility
B. Paternalism
C. Justice
D. Nonmaleficence
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Nonmaleficence
The correct answer is D: Nonmaleficence. The nurse's refusal to disclose the surgeon's medical diagnosis upholds the ethical principle of nonmaleficence, which is to do no harm. By maintaining the surgeon's confidentiality, the nurse is protecting the surgeon from potential harm or breach of privacy. This action demonstrates respect for the surgeon's autonomy and promotes trust in the nurse-patient relationship.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect:
A: Utility - Utility refers to maximizing benefits for the greatest number of people. In this scenario, the nurse's action does not relate to maximizing benefits.
B: Paternalism - Paternalism involves making decisions for someone else's well-being without their consent. The nurse's action is not an example of paternalism as the surgeon's privacy is being respected.
C: Justice - Justice involves fairness and equal treatment. The nurse's response does not directly relate to the ethical principle of justice in this context.
Question 2
A college student has quit attending classes, isolates self due to hearing voices, and yells accusations at fellow students. Based on this information, which nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize?
A. Altered thought processes R/T hearing voices AEB increased anxiety
B. Risk for other-directed violence R/T yelling accusations
C. Social isolation R/T paranoia AEB absence from classes
D. Risk for self-directed violence R/T depressed mood
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Risk for other-directed violence R/T yelling accusations
The correct answer is B: Risk for other-directed violence R/T yelling accusations. This is the priority nursing diagnosis because the student's behavior of yelling accusations at fellow students indicates a potential risk for harm towards others. It is crucial to address this immediate safety concern to prevent any harm to others.
A: Altered thought processes R/T hearing voices AEB increased anxiety is incorrect because while altered thought processes may be present, the immediate safety concern of potential violence towards others takes priority.
C: Social isolation R/T paranoia AEB absence from classes is incorrect because although social isolation and paranoia are present, the immediate risk of harm towards others is more critical to address first.
D: Risk for self-directed violence R/T depressed mood is incorrect because the student's behavior is directed towards others, not towards themselves. The immediate concern is the risk of harm towards others.
Question 3
A patient with ARDS is receiving mechanical ventilation with high PEEP levels. What should the nurse prioritize monitoring to detect complications?
A. Respiratory rate and depth.
B. Cardiac output and blood pressure.
C. White blood cell count.
D. Sputum production and characteristics.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Cardiac output and blood pressure.
The correct answer is B: Cardiac output and blood pressure. In ARDS patients on high PEEP, monitoring cardiac output and blood pressure is crucial due to the risk of hemodynamic compromise. High PEEP can decrease venous return, leading to decreased cardiac output and hypotension. Monitoring these parameters helps detect and prevent complications like hypotension, which can further compromise oxygenation.
Choice A is incorrect because while monitoring respiratory rate and depth is important in ARDS, the priority in this scenario is monitoring hemodynamic status due to the potential impact of high PEEP on cardiac function.
Choice C is incorrect as monitoring white blood cell count is not directly related to complications of high PEEP in ARDS patients.
Choice D is incorrect because sputum production and characteristics are not the priority for monitoring in this scenario; cardiac output and blood pressure are more critical indicators of potential complications.
Question 4
Which of the following is an appropriate starting point for the application of a population health approach?
A. Emergency life-saving care
B. The determinants of health
C. Health promotion models
D. Risk management
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — The determinants of health
The correct answer is B: The determinants of health. This is an appropriate starting point for the application of a population health approach because understanding the determinants of health helps identify the root causes of health disparities and population health outcomes. By focusing on social, economic, and environmental factors that influence health, interventions can be targeted effectively to improve overall health outcomes for a population.
Incorrect choices:
A: Emergency life-saving care is not an appropriate starting point for a population health approach as it focuses on individual treatment rather than addressing broader population-level factors.
C: Health promotion models are important in promoting health but may not address the underlying determinants of health necessary for a population health approach.
D: Risk management focuses on minimizing risks rather than addressing the broader determinants of health needed for a population health approach.
Question 5
A client diagnosed with schizophrenia tells a nurse, "The "ËœShopatoulens' took my shoes out of my room last night."Â Which is an appropriate charting entry to describe this client's statement?
A. The client is experiencing command hallucinations.
B. The client is expressing a neologism.
C. The client is experiencing a paranoid delusion.
D. The client is verbalizing a word salad.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — The client is expressing a neologism.
The correct answer is B: The client is expressing a neologism. Neologism refers to the creation of new words or phrases that are not understandable to others. In this case, "Shopatoulens" is a nonsensical word created by the client. This response is appropriate as it accurately describes the client's statement.
A: The client is experiencing command hallucinations - This choice is incorrect as command hallucinations involve hearing voices that command the individual to do something. The client's statement does not indicate this.
C: The client is experiencing a paranoid delusion - This choice is incorrect as a paranoid delusion involves irrational beliefs of being persecuted or targeted. The client's statement does not reflect this type of delusion.
D: The client is verbalizing a word salad - This choice is incorrect as word salad refers to jumbled, incoherent speech. The client's statement, while nonsensical, is not completely incoherent like word salad.
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Question 6
The nurse is caring for a patient who was hospitalized 2 days earlier with aspiration pneumonia. Which assessment information is most important to communicate to the health care provider?
A. The patient has a cough that is productive of blood-tinged sputum.
B. The patient has scattered crackles throughout the posterior lung bases.
C. The patient's temperature is 101.5° F after 2 days of IV antibiotic therapy.
D. The patient's SpO2 has dropped to 90%, although the O2 flow rate has been increased
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D. A drop in SpO2 to 90% despite an increase in O2 flow rate indicates worsening respiratory status, which is a critical concern in a patient with aspiration pneumonia. This information is crucial to communicate to the healthcare provider for prompt intervention.
Explanation:
1. SpO2 is a direct measure of oxygen saturation in the blood, indicating how well the patient is oxygenating.
2. A drop in SpO2 below 90% is concerning as it indicates hypoxemia and potential respiratory distress.
3. Despite increasing the O2 flow rate, the drop in SpO2 suggests that the patient's condition is deteriorating.
4. Prompt intervention is needed to prevent further respiratory compromise and potential respiratory failure.
Summary:
A: Productive cough with blood-tinged sputum may indicate lung infection, but it's not as critical as hypoxemia.
B: Crackles throughout lung bases are common in pneumonia but don't directly indicate worsening respiratory status
A volunteer assigned to the pediatric unit reports to the charge nurse for an assignment. Which of the following assignments is unsafe for the volunteer?
A. A. Transporting a school-age client who is in traction to another department
B. B. Playing a computer video game with an adolescent who has sickle cell disease
C. C. Reading a book to a preschool client who has AIDS
D. D. Rocking an infant who was admitted for croup
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A. Transporting a school-age client who is in traction to another department is unsafe for a volunteer as it involves moving a patient with a specific medical condition that requires careful handling and knowledge of proper techniques to prevent injury. The volunteer may not be trained in how to safely transport a patient in traction, which could lead to harm for the patient.
Choice B is incorrect because playing a computer video game with an adolescent who has sickle cell disease is a safe and appropriate activity for a volunteer to engage in to provide companionship and distraction for the patient.
Choice C is incorrect because reading a book to a preschool client who has AIDS is a safe and appropriate activity that can help provide comfort and support to the patient.
Choice D is incorrect because rocking an infant who was admitted for croup is a safe and appropriate activity that can help soothe the infant and provide comfort.
The nurse is completing a health history with the daughter of a newly admitted patient who is confused and agitated. The daughter reports that her mother was diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease 1 year ago but became extremely confused last evening and was hallucinating. She was unable to calm her, and her mother thought she was a stranger. On the basis of this history, the nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing:
A. Delirium.
B. Depression.
C. New-onset dementia.
D. Worsening dementia.
Correct answer:
Step 1: Delirium is characterized by acute onset confusion, agitation, hallucinations, and disorientation, which align with the patient's symptoms.
Step 2: The patient's sudden change in mental status suggests an acute condition rather than a chronic one like dementia.
Step 3: The inability to recognize her daughter and mistaking her for a stranger are typical features of delirium.
Step 4: The daughter's report of sudden confusion and hallucinations points towards delirium rather than worsening dementia or new-onset dementia.
Step 5: Therefore, based on the acute onset of symptoms and the patient's confusion and hallucinations, the nurse correctly suspects delirium.
Summary:
- B: Depression does not typically present with acute confusion, hallucinations, and disorientation.
- C: New-onset dementia would not manifest suddenly with confusion and hallucinations.
- D: Worsening dementia would show a gradual decline rather than a sudden onset of symptoms.
A nurse is caring for a client on the medical-surgical unit. The client has been taking warfarin at home and her laboratory values reveal her INR is 3.5. The client states she is checking herself out of the hospital and refuses to wait until her provider can discuss the situation with her. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Tell the client she will not be permitted to leave the facility until she has signed the against medical advice (AMA) form.
B. Tell the client if she leaves without a written prescription for discharge, her insurance will not pay for the facility visit.
C. Explain the risk the client faces if she leaves the facility.
D. Ask the security department to guard the room to the client's door.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Explain the risk the client faces if she leaves the facility.
Rationale:
1. Warfarin is a blood thinner that requires close monitoring of the INR to prevent complications like bleeding.
2. An INR of 3.5 is above the therapeutic range, putting the client at risk for bleeding.
3. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about the potential consequences of leaving against medical advice.
4. By explaining the risks, the nurse can help the client make an informed decision about their health.
5. This action demonstrates the nurse's duty to ensure the client's safety and well-being.
Summary of other choices:
A: Forcing the client to sign an AMA form does not address the client's concerns or provide necessary education about the risks.
B: Threatening the client with insurance consequences is coercive and does not prioritize the client's health.
D: Involving security is not appropriate in this situation and does not address the client
A nurse is caring for a client who is preoperative. The nurse signs as a witness on the client's consent form. The nurse's signature on the consent form indicates which of the following?
A. A. Determines the client does not have a mental illness
B. B. Confirms the client appears competent to provide consent
C. C. Asserts the nurse has explained the risks and benefits of the procedure
D. D. Records that the client's spouse agrees the procedure is necessary
Correct answer:
Rationale for Correct Answer B: The nurse's signature on the consent form confirms the client appears competent to provide consent. This is important as it ensures the client has the capacity to make informed decisions about their care. The nurse assesses the client's ability to understand the information provided regarding the procedure and its risks and benefits. By signing as a witness, the nurse acknowledges that the client is mentally competent to provide consent.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Incorrect. The nurse's signature does not determine if the client has a mental illness. This falls under the purview of the healthcare provider, not the nurse.
C: Incorrect. While the nurse may have explained the risks and benefits, this is not the sole purpose of the nurse's signature on the consent form.
D: Incorrect. The nurse's signature does not indicate the client's spouse agrees with the procedure; this is not the nurse's role in the consent process.
A college student has quit attending classes, isolates self due to hearing voices, and yells accusations at fellow students. Based on this information, which nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize?
A. Altered thought processes R/T hearing voices AEB increased anxiety
B. Risk for other-directed violence R/T yelling accusations
C. Social isolation R/T paranoia AEB absence from classes
D. Risk for self-directed violence R/T depressed mood
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Risk for other-directed violence R/T yelling accusations. This is the priority nursing diagnosis because the student's behavior of yelling accusations at fellow students indicates a potential risk for harm towards others. It is crucial to address this immediate safety concern to prevent any harm to others.
A: Altered thought processes R/T hearing voices AEB increased anxiety is incorrect because while altered thought processes may be present, the immediate safety concern of potential violence towards others takes priority.
C: Social isolation R/T paranoia AEB absence from classes is incorrect because although social isolation and paranoia are present, the immediate risk of harm towards others is more critical to address first.
D: Risk for self-directed violence R/T depressed mood is incorrect because the student's behavior is directed towards others, not towards themselves. The immediate concern is the risk of harm towards others.
Which activity would the community nurse perform during the recovery phase of the disaster management cycle?
A. Performing triage and emergency care
B. Educating families on disaster preparedness
C. Reducing the spread of communicable disease
D. Performing triage and transport victims to services
Correct answer:
During the recovery phase of the disaster management cycle, the community nurse would focus on reducing the spread of communicable diseases. This is because in the aftermath of a disaster, there is an increased risk of disease outbreaks due to compromised sanitation and living conditions. By implementing measures such as vaccination campaigns, promoting hygiene practices, and monitoring for disease symptoms, the nurse can help prevent the spread of communicable diseases and protect the community's health.
- Choice A: Performing triage and emergency care is typically done during the response phase to address immediate medical needs.
- Choice B: Educating families on disaster preparedness is important during the preparedness phase to help communities be better equipped for future disasters.
- Choice D: Performing triage and transporting victims is also part of the response phase to provide immediate medical attention and transfer to appropriate services.
A client diagnosed with schizophrenia tells a nurse, "The "˜Shopatoulens' took my shoes out of my room last night." Which is an appropriate charting entry to describe this client's statement?
A. The client is experiencing command hallucinations.
B. The client is expressing a neologism.
C. The client is experiencing a paranoid delusion.
D. The client is verbalizing a word salad.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: The client is expressing a neologism. Neologism refers to the creation of new words or phrases that are not understandable to others. In this case, "Shopatoulens" is a nonsensical word created by the client. This response is appropriate as it accurately describes the client's statement.
A: The client is experiencing command hallucinations - This choice is incorrect as command hallucinations involve hearing voices that command the individual to do something. The client's statement does not indicate this.
C: The client is experiencing a paranoid delusion - This choice is incorrect as a paranoid delusion involves irrational beliefs of being persecuted or targeted. The client's statement does not reflect this type of delusion.
D: The client is verbalizing a word salad - This choice is incorrect as word salad refers to jumbled, incoherent speech. The client's statement, while nonsensical, is not completely incoherent like word salad.
A volunteer assigned to the pediatric unit reports to the charge nurse for an assignment. Which of the following assignments is unsafe for the volunteer?
A. A. Transporting a school-age client who is in traction to another department
B. B. Playing a computer video game with an adolescent who has sickle cell disease
C. C. Reading a book to a preschool client who has AIDS
D. D. Rocking an infant who was admitted for croup
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A. Transporting a school-age client who is in traction to another department is unsafe for a volunteer as it involves moving a patient with a specific medical condition that requires careful handling and knowledge of proper techniques to prevent injury. The volunteer may not be trained in how to safely transport a patient in traction, which could lead to harm for the patient.
Choice B is incorrect because playing a computer video game with an adolescent who has sickle cell disease is a safe and appropriate activity for a volunteer to engage in to provide companionship and distraction for the patient.
Choice C is incorrect because reading a book to a preschool client who has AIDS is a safe and appropriate activity that can help provide comfort and support to the patient.
Choice D is incorrect because rocking an infant who was admitted for croup is a safe and appropriate activity that can help soothe the infant and provide comfort.
A nurse is caring for a client who is preoperative. The nurse signs as a witness on the client's consent form. The nurse's signature on the consent form indicates which of the following?
A. A. Determines the client does not have a mental illness
B. B. Confirms the client appears competent to provide consent
C. C. Asserts the nurse has explained the risks and benefits of the procedure
D. D. Records that the client's spouse agrees the procedure is necessary
Correct answer:
Rationale for Correct Answer B: The nurse's signature on the consent form confirms the client appears competent to provide consent. This is important as it ensures the client has the capacity to make informed decisions about their care. The nurse assesses the client's ability to understand the information provided regarding the procedure and its risks and benefits. By signing as a witness, the nurse acknowledges that the client is mentally competent to provide consent.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Incorrect. The nurse's signature does not determine if the client has a mental illness. This falls under the purview of the healthcare provider, not the nurse.
C: Incorrect. While the nurse may have explained the risks and benefits, this is not the sole purpose of the nurse's signature on the consent form.
D: Incorrect. The nurse's signature does not indicate the client's spouse agrees with the procedure; this is not the nurse's role in the consent process.
About these RN exams safety and infection control questions
RN exams safety and infection control practice questions, set 6 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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