RN exams safety and infection control practice questions, set 11
RN exams · safety and infection control
RN exams safety and infection control practice questionsset 11
You stop the harm first: isolation, falls, equipment, and the order that keeps the unit safe. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five safety and infection control questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Which question might the nurse answer to determine if the ethical standard of proportionality will be upheld during a community health program?
A. Do the program benefits outweigh the potential risks?
B. Do the program planners provide rationale for program choices?
C. Does the program decrease health inequities identified in the community?
D. Has the target population been involved in the program planning process?
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Do the program benefits outweigh the potential risks?
The correct answer is A because to uphold the ethical standard of proportionality in a community health program, the nurse needs to assess if the benefits of the program outweigh the potential risks. This involves considering the balance between the positive outcomes of the program and any potential harm it may cause. This question directly addresses the principle of proportionality.
Choice B is incorrect because providing rationale for program choices does not directly address the ethical standard of proportionality.
Choice C is incorrect because while decreasing health inequities is important in community health programs, it does not specifically address the principle of proportionality.
Choice D is incorrect because involving the target population in the planning process is important for community engagement but does not directly relate to upholding the ethical standard of proportionality.
Question 2
The school nurse is teaching the faculty the most effective methods to prevent the spread of lice (Pediculus Humanus Capitis) in the school. The information that would be most important to include is reflected in which of these statements?
A. "The treatment medication requires reapplication in 8 to 10 days."
B. "Bedding and clothing can be boiled or steamed to kill lice."
C. "Children should not share hats, scarves and combs."
D. "Nit combs are necessary to comb lice eggs (nits) out of children's hair."
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — "Children should not share hats, scarves and combs."
The correct answer is C: "Children should not share hats, scarves, and combs." This statement is important because lice are primarily spread through direct contact with infested individuals or by sharing personal items like hats, scarves, and combs. By emphasizing the importance of not sharing these items, the school can help prevent the spread of lice among students.
A: "The treatment medication requires reapplication in 8 to 10 days." While this information may be relevant, it is more focused on treatment rather than prevention.
B: "Bedding and clothing can be boiled or steamed to kill lice." While this is a valid method to kill lice, it is not the most important information for preventing the spread of lice in a school setting.
D: "Nit combs are necessary to comb lice eggs (nits) out of children's hair." While nit combs are useful for removing lice eggs, it is not as crucial as emphasizing
Question 3
What is the purpose of the National Response Framework?
A. Create a new branch of government that deals with bioterrorism
B. Establish a way for the Red Cross to carry out its mission
C. Define roles, responsibilities, and relationships critical to effective emergency preparedness
D. Extend presidential power to act quickly upon weapons of mass destruction
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Define roles, responsibilities, and relationships critical to effective emergency preparedness
The National Response Framework, a successor to the National Response Plan, 'helps define the roles, responsibilities, and relationships critical to effective emergency planning, preparedness, and response to any emergency or disaster.' The NRF serves as a guide for conducting a nationwide all-hazards response that is flexible and adaptable and that links all levels of the government with nongovernmental organizations and the private sector. The U.S. Department of Homeland Security was developed in 2002 to develop and coordinate the implementing of a comprehensive national strategy to secure the United States from terrorist threats or attacks. Eventually, the NRF was developed within this department. The National Response Framework helps to provide a linkage for the Red Cross to other organizations, but does not assist with it carrying out its mission. The NRF does not change presidential power.
Question 4
What is the purpose of the National Response Framework?
A. Create a new branch of government that deals with bioterrorism
B. Establish a way for the Red Cross to carry out its mission
C. Define roles, responsibilities, and relationships critical to effective emergency preparedness
D. Extend presidential power to act quickly upon weapons of mass destruction
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Define roles, responsibilities, and relationships critical to effective emergency preparedness
The National Response Framework, a successor to the National Response Plan, 'helps define the roles, responsibilities, and relationships critical to effective emergency planning, preparedness, and response to any emergency or disaster.' The NRF serves as a guide for conducting a nationwide all-hazards response that is flexible and adaptable and that links all levels of the government with nongovernmental organizations and the private sector. The U.S. Department of Homeland Security was developed in 2002 to develop and coordinate the implementing of a comprehensive national strategy to secure the United States from terrorist threats or attacks. Eventually, the NRF was developed within this department. The National Response Framework helps to provide a linkage for the Red Cross to other organizations, but does not assist with it carrying out its mission. The NRF does not change presidential power.
Question 5
Which of these clients is the priority for the nurse to report to the public health department within the next 24 hours?
A. An infant with a positive culture of stool for Shigella
B. An elderly factory worker with a lab report that is positive for acid-fast bacillus smear
C. A young adult commercial pilot with a positive histopathological examination from an induced sputum for Pneumocystis carinii
D. A middle-aged nurse with a history of varicella zoster virus and with crops of vesicles on an erythematous base that appear on the skin
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — An infant with a positive culture of stool for Shigella
The correct answer is A because Shigella is a highly contagious bacterial infection that can easily spread in the community. Infants are more vulnerable to severe complications from Shigella. Reporting this case promptly to the public health department can help prevent further spread of the infection.
Choice B is incorrect because the presence of acid-fast bacillus smear does not necessarily indicate a communicable disease that requires immediate public health intervention.
Choice C is incorrect because Pneumocystis carinii is an opportunistic infection typically seen in immunocompromised individuals, and while important for the individual's treatment, it does not pose an immediate public health threat.
Choice D is incorrect because varicella zoster virus causes chickenpox and shingles, which are not reportable diseases to the public health department unless there is an outbreak situation.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
Ten more RN exams safety and infection control questions
Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.
Question 6
In an effort to prevent drug abuse among junior high–school students, a public health nurse (PHN) has enlisted the assistance of high-school role models in the areas of both sports and scholarship for an antidrug presentation. What is the level of prevention represented by this activity?
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Both primary and secondary prevention
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. This activity targets junior high-school students who have not yet engaged in drug abuse, aiming to prevent drug abuse before it occurs. Primary prevention focuses on preventing the onset of health problems by addressing risk factors. In this case, the use of role models to deliver an antidrug presentation is a proactive approach to educate and deter students from drug abuse.
Summary:
B: Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent the progression of a problem. This activity is not focusing on those who are already using drugs.
C: Tertiary prevention involves managing and treating existing health problems to prevent complications. This activity is not targeting students with existing drug abuse issues.
D: This activity is solely focused on preventing drug abuse before it starts, making it a primary prevention strategy.
As the drilling supervisor, Travis is responsible for getting the rig dismantled, moved, and set up
A. What dimension of transformational leadership is he demonstrating when he asks the workers to try to identify safer ways of carrying out the move?
B. idealized influence
C. inspirational motivation
D. intellectual stimulation
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: intellectual stimulation. This dimension of transformational leadership involves encouraging innovation, creativity, and problem-solving. By asking the workers to identify safer ways of carrying out the move, Travis is stimulating their intellect and promoting a culture of continuous improvement. This approach fosters critical thinking and empowers employees to contribute ideas.
Other choices are incorrect:
A: While the scenario involves encouraging workers to identify safer ways, it focuses on stimulating their intellect rather than idealized influence, which involves setting an example and instilling pride.
B: Idealized influence relates to establishing trust and admiration, which is not the focus of the scenario.
C: Inspirational motivation involves inspiring and motivating others towards a shared vision, not specifically focusing on intellectual stimulation.
A nurse is serving on a continuous quality improvement (CQI) committee that has been assigned to develop a program to reduce the number of medication administration errors following a sentinel event at the facility. Which of the following strategies should the committee plan to initiate first?
A. Provide an inservice on medication administration to all the nurses.
B. Require staff nurses to demonstrate competency by passing a medication administration examination.
C. Review the events leading up to each medication administration error.
D. Develop a quality improvement program for nurses involved in medication administration errors.
Correct answer:
Step 1: Reviewing the events leading up to each medication administration error is the most crucial first step. It allows the committee to understand the root causes of the errors, identify patterns or common factors contributing to errors, and develop targeted interventions to prevent future errors.
Step 2: Providing an inservice on medication administration to all nurses (Choice A) is important but should come after understanding the specific issues causing errors.
Step 3: Requiring staff nurses to demonstrate competency by passing an examination (Choice B) is not the most effective initial strategy as it focuses on individual performance rather than systemic issues.
Step 4: Developing a quality improvement program for nurses involved in errors (Choice D) is important but should follow the analysis of the errors to ensure the program's effectiveness in addressing the identified issues.
As the drilling supervisor, Travis is responsible for getting the rig dismantled, moved, and set up
A. What dimension of transformational leadership is he demonstrating when he asks the workers to try to identify safer ways of carrying out the move?
B. idealized influence
C. inspirational motivation
D. intellectual stimulation
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: intellectual stimulation. This dimension of transformational leadership involves encouraging innovation, creativity, and problem-solving. By asking the workers to identify safer ways of carrying out the move, Travis is stimulating their intellect and promoting a culture of continuous improvement. This approach fosters critical thinking and empowers employees to contribute ideas.
Other choices are incorrect:
A: While the scenario involves encouraging workers to identify safer ways, it focuses on stimulating their intellect rather than idealized influence, which involves setting an example and instilling pride.
B: Idealized influence relates to establishing trust and admiration, which is not the focus of the scenario.
C: Inspirational motivation involves inspiring and motivating others towards a shared vision, not specifically focusing on intellectual stimulation.
Which of these nursing diagnoses, appropriate for elderly clients, would indicate the client is at greatest risk for falls?
A. Sensory perceptual alterations related to decreased vision
B. Alteration in mobility related to fatigue
C. Impaired gas exchange related to retained secretions
D. Altered patterns of urinary elimination related to nocturia
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Sensory perceptual alterations related to decreased vision. Elderly clients with decreased vision are at greater risk for falls due to impaired depth perception, reduced awareness of obstacles, and difficulty navigating their environment. This nursing diagnosis directly impacts the client's ability to detect potential fall hazards.
Incorrect Choices:
B: Alteration in mobility related to fatigue - Fatigue may contribute to falls but is not as directly related to fall risk as sensory perceptual alterations.
C: Impaired gas exchange related to retained secretions - This nursing diagnosis is not directly associated with an increased risk of falls.
D: Altered patterns of urinary elimination related to nocturia - Nocturia may impact mobility during nighttime bathroom trips but is not as critical in fall risk assessment compared to sensory perceptual alterations.
After an explosion at a factory one of the employees approaches the nurse and says, “I am an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) at the local hospital.†Which of these tasks should the nurse assign first to this worker who wants to help care for the wounded workers?
A. Get temperatures
B. Take blood pressure
C. Palpate pulses
D. Check alertness
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Check alertness. This task should be assigned first because it is crucial to ensure that the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is mentally and physically capable of providing assistance safely. Checking alertness helps determine if the worker is in a clear state of mind to follow instructions and make sound decisions in an emergency situation. This step is essential for the safety of both the UAP and the wounded workers.
Explanation for other choices:
A: Get temperatures - This task is important but not as critical as checking alertness in an emergency situation.
B: Take blood pressure - Monitoring blood pressure may be important, but it is not the most immediate concern when assessing the UAP's ability to help.
C: Palpate pulses - While assessing pulses is essential in healthcare, it is not as urgent as ensuring the UAP's alertness in this scenario.
Which of these nursing diagnoses, appropriate for elderly clients, would indicate the client is at greatest risk for falls?
A. Sensory perceptual alterations related to decreased vision
B. Alteration in mobility related to fatigue
C. Impaired gas exchange related to retained secretions
D. Altered patterns of urinary elimination related to nocturia
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Sensory perceptual alterations related to decreased vision. Elderly clients with decreased vision are at greater risk for falls due to impaired depth perception, reduced awareness of obstacles, and difficulty navigating their environment. This nursing diagnosis directly impacts the client's ability to detect potential fall hazards.
Incorrect Choices:
B: Alteration in mobility related to fatigue - Fatigue may contribute to falls but is not as directly related to fall risk as sensory perceptual alterations.
C: Impaired gas exchange related to retained secretions - This nursing diagnosis is not directly associated with an increased risk of falls.
D: Altered patterns of urinary elimination related to nocturia - Nocturia may impact mobility during nighttime bathroom trips but is not as critical in fall risk assessment compared to sensory perceptual alterations.
Upon skin inspection of an older adult, the coccyx wound is noted to be intact, reddened, and non-blanchable. What is the best way to document the nurse's assessment finding?
A. As a stage I pressure injury.
B. As a stage II pressure injury.
C. As a stage III pressure injury.
D. As a stage IV pressure injury.
Correct answer:
The correct way to document the nurse's assessment finding of an intact, reddened, and non-blanchable coccyx wound in an older adult is as a stage I pressure injury. A stage I pressure injury is characterized by intact skin with non-blanchable redness. In this case, the skin is intact, showing the initial signs of tissue damage due to pressure. Stages II, III, and IV pressure injuries involve more severe damage to the skin and underlying tissues. Stage II involves partial-thickness skin loss, stage III involves full-thickness skin loss, and stage IV involves full-thickness skin loss with extensive tissue necrosis. Since the coccyx wound is only showing redness without any loss of skin integrity, it aligns with a stage I pressure injury. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they describe more advanced stages of pressure injuries with skin breakdown, which is not present in this case.
When a patient is diagnosed with pulmonary fibrosis, the nurse will teach the patient about the risk for poor oxygenation because of
A. too-rapid movement of blood flow through the pulmonary blood vessels
B. incomplete filling of the alveoli with air because of reduced respiratory ability
C. decreased transfer of oxygen into the blood because of thickening of the alveoli
D. mismatch between lung ventilation and blood flow through the blood vessels of the lung
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because in pulmonary fibrosis, there is thickening of the alveoli which leads to decreased transfer of oxygen into the blood. This happens because the thickened alveolar walls make it harder for oxygen to pass from the air sacs into the bloodstream. This results in poor oxygenation of the blood.
Option A is incorrect because too-rapid movement of blood flow through the pulmonary blood vessels does not directly affect oxygenation in pulmonary fibrosis.
Option B is incorrect because incomplete filling of the alveoli with air due to reduced respiratory ability may impact oxygenation, but this is not the primary mechanism in pulmonary fibrosis.
Option D is incorrect because a mismatch between lung ventilation and blood flow through the blood vessels is not the main issue in pulmonary fibrosis; it is more relevant in conditions like pulmonary embolism.
Upon skin inspection of an older adult, the coccyx wound is noted to be intact, reddened, and non-blanchable. What is the best way to document the nurse's assessment finding?
A. As a stage I pressure injury.
B. As a stage II pressure injury.
C. As a stage III pressure injury.
D. As a stage IV pressure injury.
Correct answer:
The correct way to document the nurse's assessment finding of an intact, reddened, and non-blanchable coccyx wound in an older adult is as a stage I pressure injury. A stage I pressure injury is characterized by intact skin with non-blanchable redness. In this case, the skin is intact, showing the initial signs of tissue damage due to pressure. Stages II, III, and IV pressure injuries involve more severe damage to the skin and underlying tissues. Stage II involves partial-thickness skin loss, stage III involves full-thickness skin loss, and stage IV involves full-thickness skin loss with extensive tissue necrosis. Since the coccyx wound is only showing redness without any loss of skin integrity, it aligns with a stage I pressure injury. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they describe more advanced stages of pressure injuries with skin breakdown, which is not present in this case.
About these RN exams safety and infection control questions
RN exams safety and infection control practice questions, set 11 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the RN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
