RN exams safety and infection control practice questions set 5

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During the Sort phase of the SALT triage system, the nurse will move victims who cannot walk to a staging area. This is because sorting involves quickly identifying and separating victims based on their ability to walk. Those who can walk are considered to have a better chance of survival and are typically grouped together for further assessment and treatment. By moving victims who cannot walk to a staging area, the nurse ensures that these individuals receive prompt attention and appropriate care. Summary: A: Moving victims who cannot walk to a staging area (Correct) - This is done to prioritize care for those who are unable to walk. B: Placing color-coded triage tags on victims (Incorrect) - This is typically done in the Triage/treatment phase. C: Opening the airway of victims who are not breathing (Incorrect) - This is a life-saving intervention done in the Life-saving Interventions phase. D: Asking victims to walk to a staging area (Incorrect) - Not appropriate as it may

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The correct answer is C because the elderly man with an acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis has a condition that requires ongoing monitoring and treatment in a hospital setting. During an internal disaster, such as a natural disaster or fire, it is crucial to keep patients who are acutely ill or unstable in the hospital where they can receive immediate care. A: The adolescent with sepsis whose vital signs are stable can be managed in a less acute care setting. B: The middle-aged woman with a past uncomplicated myocardial infarction is stable and can be discharged or transferred to a lower level of care. D: The young adult in the second day of treatment for an acetaminophen overdose may need monitoring but is not as acutely ill as the elderly man with ulcerative colitis. In summary, choice C is correct because the elderly man requires ongoing medical care and monitoring during an internal disaster, while the other choices can be managed in a less acute care setting.

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The correct answer is C: Explain the risk the client faces if she leaves the facility. Rationale: 1. Warfarin is a blood thinner that requires close monitoring of the INR to prevent complications like bleeding. 2. An INR of 3.5 is above the therapeutic range, putting the client at risk for bleeding. 3. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about the potential consequences of leaving against medical advice. 4. By explaining the risks, the nurse can help the client make an informed decision about their health. 5. This action demonstrates the nurse's duty to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Summary of other choices: A: Forcing the client to sign an AMA form does not address the client's concerns or provide necessary education about the risks. B: Threatening the client with insurance consequences is coercive and does not prioritize the client's health. D: Involving security is not appropriate in this situation and does not address the client

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The correct answer is D. A drop in SpO2 to 90% despite an increase in O2 flow rate indicates worsening respiratory status, which is a critical concern in a patient with aspiration pneumonia. This information is crucial to communicate to the healthcare provider for prompt intervention. Explanation: 1. SpO2 is a direct measure of oxygen saturation in the blood, indicating how well the patient is oxygenating. 2. A drop in SpO2 below 90% is concerning as it indicates hypoxemia and potential respiratory distress. 3. Despite increasing the O2 flow rate, the drop in SpO2 suggests that the patient's condition is deteriorating. 4. Prompt intervention is needed to prevent further respiratory compromise and potential respiratory failure. Summary: A: Productive cough with blood-tinged sputum may indicate lung infection, but it's not as critical as hypoxemia. B: Crackles throughout lung bases are common in pneumonia but don't directly indicate worsening respiratory status

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The correct answer is D: Nonmaleficence. The nurse is displaying the ethical principle of nonmaleficence by protecting the surgeon's right to privacy and confidentiality. By refusing to disclose the surgeon's medical diagnosis, the nurse is upholding the duty to do no harm by preventing potential harm that could result from unauthorized disclosure. This action also respects the surgeon's autonomy and right to control their own personal health information. Summary: A: Utility - This ethical principle focuses on maximizing overall benefit or happiness. The nurse's action does not relate to this principle. B: Paternalism - This ethical principle involves making decisions on behalf of the patient for their own good. The nurse's action does not involve making decisions but rather respecting the surgeon's autonomy. C: Justice - This ethical principle pertains to fairness and equal treatment. The nurse's action does not directly relate to this principle in this scenario.

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The correct answer is B: Cardiac output and blood pressure. In ARDS patients on high PEEP, monitoring cardiac output and blood pressure is crucial due to the risk of hemodynamic compromise. High PEEP can decrease venous return, leading to decreased cardiac output and hypotension. Monitoring these parameters helps detect and prevent complications like hypotension, which can further compromise oxygenation. Choice A is incorrect because while monitoring respiratory rate and depth is important in ARDS, the priority in this scenario is monitoring hemodynamic status due to the potential impact of high PEEP on cardiac function. Choice C is incorrect as monitoring white blood cell count is not directly related to complications of high PEEP in ARDS patients. Choice D is incorrect because sputum production and characteristics are not the priority for monitoring in this scenario; cardiac output and blood pressure are more critical indicators of potential complications.

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The correct answer is D: Nonmaleficence. The nurse's refusal to disclose the surgeon's medical diagnosis upholds the ethical principle of nonmaleficence, which is to do no harm. By maintaining the surgeon's confidentiality, the nurse is protecting the surgeon from potential harm or breach of privacy. This action demonstrates respect for the surgeon's autonomy and promotes trust in the nurse-patient relationship. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: A: Utility - Utility refers to maximizing benefits for the greatest number of people. In this scenario, the nurse's action does not relate to maximizing benefits. B: Paternalism - Paternalism involves making decisions for someone else's well-being without their consent. The nurse's action is not an example of paternalism as the surgeon's privacy is being respected. C: Justice - Justice involves fairness and equal treatment. The nurse's response does not directly relate to the ethical principle of justice in this context.

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The correct answer is B: The determinants of health. This is an appropriate starting point for the application of a population health approach because understanding the determinants of health helps identify the root causes of health disparities and population health outcomes. By focusing on social, economic, and environmental factors that influence health, interventions can be targeted effectively to improve overall health outcomes for a population. Incorrect choices: A: Emergency life-saving care is not an appropriate starting point for a population health approach as it focuses on individual treatment rather than addressing broader population-level factors. C: Health promotion models are important in promoting health but may not address the underlying determinants of health necessary for a population health approach. D: Risk management focuses on minimizing risks rather than addressing the broader determinants of health needed for a population health approach.

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Correct Answer: A: Fidelity Rationale: 1. Fidelity refers to the nurse's duty to uphold the patient's best interests and maintain trust. 2. By continually reviewing the pain management plan with the patient, the nurse demonstrates fidelity by ensuring the patient's priority of being free of pain is met. 3. Monitoring the patient's response to pain aligns with fidelity as it shows the nurse's commitment to the patient's well-being and trust. 4. Fidelity promotes a therapeutic nurse-patient relationship based on honesty and loyalty. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Beneficence - Focuses on doing good for the patient, but does not specifically address the nurse's duty to monitor and uphold the patient's priority of pain management. C: Nonmaleficence - Focuses on avoiding harm, but does not specifically address the nurse's role in monitoring and ensuring the patient's priority of pain management. D: Respect for autonomy - Focuses on respecting the patient's right to make

Correct answer:

The correct answer is D: Nonmaleficence. The nurse is displaying the ethical principle of nonmaleficence by protecting the surgeon's right to privacy and confidentiality. By refusing to disclose the surgeon's medical diagnosis, the nurse is upholding the duty to do no harm by preventing potential harm that could result from unauthorized disclosure. This action also respects the surgeon's autonomy and right to control their own personal health information. Summary: A: Utility - This ethical principle focuses on maximizing overall benefit or happiness. The nurse's action does not relate to this principle. B: Paternalism - This ethical principle involves making decisions on behalf of the patient for their own good. The nurse's action does not involve making decisions but rather respecting the surgeon's autonomy. C: Justice - This ethical principle pertains to fairness and equal treatment. The nurse's action does not directly relate to this principle in this scenario.