LPN exams safety and infection control practice questions, set 7
LPN exams · safety and infection control
LPN exams safety and infection control practice questionsset 7
You stop the harm first: isolation, falls, equipment, and the order that keeps the unit safe. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five safety and infection control questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A parent calls the hospital hot line and is connected to the triage nurse. The caller proclaims: 'I found my child with odd stuff coming from the mouth and an unmarked bottle nearby.' Which of these comments would be the best tool for the nurse to determine if the child has swallowed a corrosive substance?
A. Ask the child if the mouth is burning or throat pain is present.'
B. Take the child's pulse at the wrist and see if the child is has trouble breathing lying flat.'
C. What color is the child's lips and nails and has the child voided today?'
D. Has the child had vomiting, diarrhea or stomach cramps?'
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Ask the child if the mouth is burning or throat pain is present.'
The correct answer is A because asking the child if the mouth is burning or if there is throat pain can help determine if a corrosive substance has been swallowed. Corrosive substances can cause immediate pain and burning sensation in the mouth and throat. This information is crucial for assessing the severity of the situation and providing appropriate care.
Choice B is incorrect because taking the child's pulse and checking for breathing difficulties do not directly help in identifying if a corrosive substance has been ingested.
Choice C is incorrect because the color of the child's lips and nails and voiding habits are not specific indicators of corrosive substance ingestion.
Choice D is incorrect because symptoms like vomiting, diarrhea, and stomach cramps can be caused by various factors and may not specifically indicate ingestion of a corrosive substance.
Question 2
A nurse is caring for a client who is dying of metastatic breast cancer. She has a prescription for an opioid pain medication PRN. The nurse is concerned that administering a dose of pain medication might hasten the client's death. Which of the following ethical principles should the nurse use to support the decision not to administer the medication?
A. Utilitarianism
B. Nonmaleficence
C. Fidelity
D. Veracity
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Nonmaleficence
The correct answer is B: Nonmaleficence. Nonmaleficence is the ethical principle of doing no harm. In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize relieving the client's pain and suffering, as alleviating pain is a fundamental aspect of nursing care. Administering the opioid pain medication PRN is aimed at providing comfort and improving the client's quality of life, not hastening death. By following the principle of nonmaleficence, the nurse is acting in the best interest of the client's well-being.
A: Utilitarianism focuses on maximizing overall good for the majority, which may conflict with the individual client's well-being.
C: Fidelity pertains to being faithful and keeping promises, but in this case, the priority is the client's comfort.
D: Veracity is about truthfulness, which is important, but in this context, the focus is on pain management and comfort care.
Question 3
Which approach is the best way to prevent infections when providing care to clients in the home setting?
A. Handwashing before and after examination of clients
B. Wearing nonpowdered latex-free gloves to examine the client
C. Using a barrier between the client's furniture and the nurse's bag
D. Wearing a mask with a shield during any eye/mouth/nose examination
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Handwashing before and after examination of clients
The correct answer is A: Handwashing before and after examination of clients. Handwashing is crucial in preventing the spread of infections as it helps eliminate germs on the hands. Before examining clients, handwashing reduces the risk of transferring pathogens from one client to another. After examination, it helps protect the client and the caregiver from potential infections.
Choice B is not the best approach as gloves can sometimes create a false sense of security and may not be as effective as proper handwashing.
Choice C may help prevent cross-contamination between client belongings and the nurse's bag but does not directly address infection prevention during care provision.
Choice D is specific to certain types of examinations and may not be necessary for all client interactions. Handwashing remains the most effective and universal preventive measure.
Question 4
During a home health visit a nurse talks with a patient and his family caregiver about the patient's medications. The patient has hypertension and renal disease. Which of the following findings place him at risk for an adverse drug event? (Select all that apply.)
A. Taking two medications for hypertension
B. Taking a total of eight different medications during the day
C. Having one physician who reviews all medications
D. Patient's health history of renal disease
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Taking a total of eight different medications during the day
The correct answer is B. Taking a total of eight different medications during the day places the patient at risk for an adverse drug event due to the potential for drug interactions, side effects, and medication errors. With multiple medications, there is a higher risk of medication non-adherence and confusion. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Taking two medications for hypertension is a common practice and may not necessarily increase the risk of an adverse drug event.
C: Having one physician who reviews all medications is a positive factor that can help prevent adverse drug events by ensuring proper coordination of care.
D: The patient's health history of renal disease is important to consider when prescribing medications but does not directly place him at risk for an adverse drug event unless specific medications are contraindicated for renal disease.
Question 5
A nurse is providing care for a surgeon on a medical-surgical unit. A nurse from another unit asks the nurse about the surgeon's medical diagnosis. The nurse responds that he is unable to provide the information requested. The nurse is displaying which of the following ethical principles?
A. Utility
B. Paternalism
C. Justice
D. Nonmaleficence
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Nonmaleficence
The correct answer is D: Nonmaleficence. The nurse is displaying the ethical principle of nonmaleficence by protecting the surgeon's right to privacy and confidentiality. By refusing to disclose the surgeon's medical diagnosis, the nurse is prioritizing the principle of doing no harm and preventing potential harm to the surgeon's well-being. This respects the surgeon's autonomy and confidentiality.
Summary of other choices:
A: Utility - This principle focuses on maximizing benefits for the greatest number of people. Not applicable in this scenario.
B: Paternalism - This principle involves making decisions for someone else's best interest. Not applicable as the nurse is respecting the surgeon's autonomy.
C: Justice - This principle involves fairness and equal treatment. Not relevant to the situation as it does not involve distribution of resources or treatment.
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Question 6
A nurse checks with assistive personnel on the unit throughout the shift to determine if they are completing tasks. The nurse is demonstrating which of the following rights of delegation?
A. Right circumstances
B. Right communication
C. Right person
D. Right supervision
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Right supervision. The nurse checking in with assistive personnel to ensure tasks are completed is an example of proper supervision, which is one of the rights of delegation. Supervision involves overseeing and guiding the work of others to ensure tasks are being carried out correctly and safely. This helps maintain accountability and quality of care.
Summary of other choices:
A: Right circumstances - This refers to ensuring the task is appropriate for delegation based on factors such as patient condition and complexity.
B: Right communication - This involves clear and effective communication of tasks, responsibilities, and expectations between the nurse and assistive personnel.
C: Right person - This focuses on selecting the most qualified and competent individual to perform the delegated task based on their skill level and training.
A nurse is caring for a client who has severe head injuries and is declared brain dead. The transplant coordinator has spoken with the client's family about organ donation. The client's spouse states she is confused and does not know what she should do. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
A. There is such a shortage of organs in this country, so I think you should go ahead and consent to donate your spouse's organs.'
B. What do you think your spouse would have wanted?'
C. Most religions support organ donation, so don't let that stand in the way.'
D. Don't you think you will feel a little better about the situation if you donate your spouse's organs?'
Correct answer:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
1. Asking the spouse what the brain-dead client would have wanted respects the client's autonomy and allows the family to make a decision in alignment with the client's wishes.
2. This approach considers the emotional and ethical aspects of organ donation, ensuring that the decision is not solely based on external factors or pressure.
3. It promotes shared decision-making and empowers the spouse to make a choice that reflects the client's values and beliefs.
Summary:
- Option A is incorrect as it uses guilt and societal pressure to influence the decision, which is not ethical.
- Option C is incorrect as it dismisses the spouse's confusion and oversimplifies the issue by focusing solely on religious beliefs.
- Option D is incorrect as it manipulates emotions and does not address the spouse's confusion or the client's wishes.
A nurse is serving on a continuous quality improvement (CQI) committee that has been assigned to develop a program to reduce the number of medication administration errors following a sentinel event at the facility. Which of the following strategies should the committee plan to initiate first?
A. Provide an inservice on medication administration to all the nurses.
B. Require staff nurses to demonstrate competency by passing a medication administration examination.
C. Review the events leading up to each medication administration error.
D. Develop a quality improvement program for nurses involved in medication administration errors.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Review the events leading up to each medication administration error. This should be initiated first because it allows the committee to identify root causes of errors and implement targeted interventions. By understanding the sequence of events, the committee can uncover system weaknesses or breakdowns that contribute to errors.
A: Providing an inservice may be helpful, but without understanding the specific factors leading to errors, it may not address the underlying issues causing the errors.
B: Requiring a competency exam is important, but addressing the system failures that lead to errors should take priority to prevent future errors.
D: Developing a quality improvement program is necessary, but without a thorough understanding of the events leading to errors, the program may not effectively target the root causes of errors.
A school nurse has a 10-year-old child with a history of epilepsy with tonic-clonic seizures attending classes regularly. The school nurse should inform the teacher that if the child experiences a seizure in the classroom, the most important action to take during the seizure would be to:
A. Move any chairs or desks at least 3 feet away from the child
B. Note the sequence of movements with the time lapse of the event
C. Provide privacy as much as possible to minimize frightening the other children
D. Place the hands or a folded blanket under the head of the child
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Place the hands or a folded blanket under the head of the child. This action is important during a seizure to prevent injury to the child's head. Placing hands or a blanket under the head helps protect the child's head from hitting the ground and reduces the risk of head trauma. It is a crucial step in ensuring the safety and well-being of the child during a seizure.
Moving on to why the other choices are incorrect:
A: Moving chairs or desks is not necessary during a seizure and may not be feasible in a classroom setting.
B: Noting the sequence of movements with the time lapse is not as important as ensuring the child's safety during the seizure.
C: Providing privacy to minimize frightening other children is not the priority during a seizure; the focus should be on the safety and well-being of the child experiencing the seizure.
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a flat affect, paranoid delusions, anhedonia, anergia, neologisms, and echolalia. Which statement correctly differentiates the client's positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia?
A. Paranoid delusions, anhedonia, and anergia are positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
B. Paranoid delusions, neologisms, and echolalia are positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
C. Paranoid delusions, anergia, and echolalia are negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
D. Paranoid delusions, flat affect, and anhedonia are negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because paranoid delusions, neologisms, and echolalia are all considered positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Positive symptoms are behaviors or experiences that are added to a person's normal functioning, such as hallucinations, delusions, or disorganized speech. In this case, paranoid delusions involve false beliefs of being persecuted or harmed, neologisms refer to made-up words, and echolalia is the repetition of words or phrases spoken by others. Flat affect, anhedonia, and anergia are actually negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Negative symptoms involve deficits in normal functioning, such as a lack of emotional expression (flat affect), inability to experience pleasure (anhedonia), and lack of energy or motivation (anergia). Therefore, choice B correctly differentiates the client's positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
A community health nurse (CHN) is demonstrating the use of a peak flow meter to help children with chronic asthma recognize when they need to use a rescue inhaler. What is the level of prevention represented by this activity?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Both primary and secondary
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. This activity falls under secondary prevention because it aims to detect and manage asthma exacerbations early on, reducing the severity of the condition and preventing complications. It focuses on early intervention and management to prevent further deterioration in children with chronic asthma.
A: Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of asthma in the first place, such as through education on asthma triggers and avoidance strategies.
C: Tertiary prevention focuses on rehabilitation and improving quality of life for individuals with established asthma through measures like pulmonary rehabilitation and support services.
D: This option is incorrect because the activity specifically targets early detection and management of asthma exacerbations, aligning it with the goals of secondary prevention only.
A nurse is providing care for a surgeon on a medical-surgical unit. A nurse from another unit asks the nurse about the surgeon's medical diagnosis. The nurse responds that he is unable to provide the information requested. The nurse is displaying which of the following ethical principles?
A. Utility
B. Paternalism
C. Justice
D. Nonmaleficence
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Nonmaleficence. The nurse is upholding the principle of nonmaleficence by not disclosing the surgeon's medical diagnosis, as it could potentially harm the surgeon's privacy and confidentiality. Nonmaleficence means to do no harm and to prevent harm. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Utility - This principle focuses on maximizing benefits for the greatest number of people. Not disclosing the surgeon's diagnosis does not directly relate to maximizing benefits.
B: Paternalism - This principle involves making decisions for someone else's best interest without their consent. The nurse's actions are not paternalistic as they are respecting the surgeon's right to privacy.
C: Justice - This principle focuses on fairness and equal treatment. Not disclosing the diagnosis does not directly relate to justice in this scenario.
The patient has just been told that he has cancer. When the nurse assesses the patient at shift change, his heart rate and respirations are elevated. What type of response is this to stress?
A. Somatic.
B. Neurologic.
C. Physiologic.
D. Psychological.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Physiologic. When the patient's heart rate and respirations are elevated in response to stress, it indicates a physiological response. This is the body's natural reaction to stress, known as the fight-or-flight response. The sympathetic nervous system is activated, leading to increased heart rate and respirations to prepare the body to respond to the perceived threat. Somatic response (choice A) refers to physical sensations in the body, not the autonomic physiological response. Neurologic response (choice B) involves the nervous system's role in transmitting signals, but it does not specifically address the physiological changes observed in this scenario. Psychological response (choice D) refers to emotional and cognitive reactions, which are distinct from the physiological changes seen in the patient's heart rate and respirations.
Which action should the school nurse perform to address dental health at the community level?
A. Educate caregivers of children with dental caries about oral health
B. Advocate for fluoridation of drinking water
C. Assist caregivers with finding dental resources for children without dental insurance
D. Teach children in school how to floss properly
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Advocate for fluoridation of drinking water. Fluoridation of drinking water is a community-level intervention that has been proven effective in reducing dental caries and improving oral health. By advocating for fluoridation, the school nurse can help improve the dental health of the entire community.
A: Educating caregivers of children with dental caries about oral health is important, but it is more of an individual-level intervention rather than a community-level action.
C: Assisting caregivers with finding dental resources for children without dental insurance is also valuable, but it does not address dental health at a community level.
D: Teaching children in school how to floss properly is a good preventive measure, but it is not as impactful at the community level as advocating for fluoridation of drinking water.
A health care system's ability to rapidly expand beyond normal capacity to meet an increased demand for qualified personnel, beds, and medical care services in the event of a large-scale emergency or disaster is known as:
A. acuity.
B. surge capacity.
C. mass casualty.
D. natural disaster.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: surge capacity. Surge capacity refers to a health care system's ability to rapidly expand beyond normal capacity to meet increased demand during emergencies or disasters. This includes the ability to quickly increase personnel, beds, and medical care services to accommodate the surge in patients.
A: Acuity refers to the severity of a patient's illness or injury and is not specifically related to the system's capacity to expand during emergencies.
C: Mass casualty refers to a situation where the number of casualties exceeds the resources available to provide adequate care, but it does not specifically address the system's ability to expand capacity.
D: Natural disaster refers to a specific type of emergency or disaster and does not encompass the broader concept of a health care system's capacity to handle increased demand.
About these LPN exams safety and infection control questions
LPN exams safety and infection control practice questions, set 7 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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