LPN exams safety and infection control practice questions, set 11
LPN exams · safety and infection control
LPN exams safety and infection control practice questionsset 11
You stop the harm first: isolation, falls, equipment, and the order that keeps the unit safe. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five safety and infection control questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
What is the main achievement of the Community Health Nurses Association of Canada
A. ?
B. Licensed practical nurses (LPNs) as well as registered nurses (RNs) were allowed to join the association.
C. Nurses who were not PHNs were encouraged to join.
D. National standards of practice were develope
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — National standards of practice were develope
The correct answer is D because the main achievement of the Community Health Nurses Association of Canada is the development of national standards of practice. This achievement is crucial for ensuring consistency, quality, and professionalism in the practice of community health nursing across the country. By establishing these standards, the association helps to guide and improve the delivery of care, promote accountability, and enhance the overall effectiveness of community health nursing services.
Choice A is incorrect because it does not specify any particular achievement of the association. Choice B is incorrect because the inclusion of LPNs is not the main achievement of the association. Choice C is incorrect because encouraging nurses who are not PHNs to join is not the main achievement of the association.
Question 2
Which of the following is used as a measurement of population health?
A. Health status indicators
B. The levels of prevention
C. The number of memberships at the local fitness centre
D. Reported provincial alcohol and tobacco sales in any given month
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Health status indicators
The correct answer is A: Health status indicators. This is because health status indicators, such as life expectancy, mortality rates, and disease incidence, provide quantitative measures of the overall health of a population. These indicators are used to assess the effectiveness of healthcare interventions, identify health disparities, and prioritize public health initiatives.
Choice B, levels of prevention, refers to primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention strategies and is not a direct measurement of population health. Choice C, the number of memberships at a fitness center, is not a comprehensive or standardized measure of population health. Choice D, reported provincial alcohol and tobacco sales, may provide insights into specific health behaviors but do not represent overall population health status.
Question 3
A nurse is caring for a client whose family member requests to view the client's medical record. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
A. I will ask the nursing supervisor to obtain the medical records for you.
B. The health care provider will share this information with you.
C. The ethics committee will need to approve this request for you.
D. The client must provide permission to share the records with you.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — The client must provide permission to share the records with you.
The correct answer is D because according to HIPAA regulations, a client's medical records are confidential and can only be shared with the client's permission. The nurse should inform the family member that the client must provide permission to access the medical records.
A: Asking the nursing supervisor to obtain the medical records is not appropriate as it bypasses the client's right to privacy.
B: The health care provider cannot share the information without the client's consent.
C: Involving the ethics committee is unnecessary and does not address the issue of the client's permission.
In summary, choice D is correct as it upholds the client's right to privacy and follows legal and ethical guidelines. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not consider the client's autonomy and confidentiality.
Question 4
A client presents to the emergency department delirious and combative. The client becomes a danger to himself and to the staff caring for him. Which of the following actions is most appropriate?
A. Remove all objects from the client’s room that could cause harm, leave the client alone and assign a security officer outside the client’s room.
B. Apply wrist restraints to the client and check every 15 minutes.
C. Recruit other nursing staff to help hold the client in bed.
D. Administer intramuscular sedative medication to the client.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Administer intramuscular sedative medication to the client.
The correct answer is D: Administer intramuscular sedative medication to the client. This option addresses the immediate safety concern by calming the delirious and combative client, preventing harm to themselves and others. Sedative medication can help manage the client's behavior and facilitate a safe environment for both the client and the staff.
Rationale:
1. Removing objects (Option A) does not address the client's behavior and may not effectively manage the situation.
2. Applying wrist restraints (Option B) can lead to physical and psychological harm, should only be used as a last resort, and does not address the underlying cause of the behavior.
3. Recruiting staff to physically hold the client (Option C) is unsafe, may escalate the situation, and poses a risk of injury to both the client and staff.
Question 5
A community health nurse has invited several agencies in the community to a meeting to discuss the disaster plan for the community. Which of the following best describes the purpose of this meeting?
A. To increase stability in the community
B. To improve overall community functioning
C. To manage response to disasters in the community
D. To enhance communication among agencies in the community
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — To manage response to disasters in the community
The level of community preparedness for a disaster is only as good as the people and organizations in the community make it. Although natural disasters cannot be prevented, much can be done to minimize further increases in accidents, death, and destruction after impact. A concise, realistic, and well-rehearsed disaster plan is essential for managing the response to disaster. Open, clear, and ongoing communication among involved workers and organizations is critical. A disaster planning meeting among community agencies would not impact the stability or functioning of the community. The communication among the agencies that are present may be improved; however, the group is meeting for a specific purpose so the overall communication may not change, and there may be agencies that are not represented at the meeting.
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Question 6
When the nurse is administering furosemide 40 mg IV push to a client in congestive heart failure (CHF), what phase of the nursing process does this represent?
A. Assessment.
B. Planning.
C. Implementation.
D. Evaluation.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Implementation. This is because administering furosemide 40 mg IV push is a direct action taken by the nurse based on the planned interventions to manage the client's CHF symptoms. During the implementation phase, the nurse carries out the planned interventions to achieve the client's desired outcomes.
A: Assessment is incorrect because administering medication is not part of the assessment phase, which involves gathering data about the client's condition.
B: Planning is incorrect because administering medication is not part of the planning phase, which involves developing a care plan based on the assessment data.
D: Evaluation is incorrect because administering medication is not part of the evaluation phase, which involves assessing the outcomes of the interventions implemented.
Which public health nurse leader was instrumental in establishing the first integrated basic nursing degree program in Canada?
A. Florence Nightingale
B. Kathleen Russell
C. Edna Moore
D. Lillian Wald
Correct answer:
Step-by-step rationale for why B is correct:
1. Kathleen Russell was a public health nurse leader in Canada.
2. She played a key role in establishing the first integrated basic nursing degree program in Canada.
3. Her leadership and advocacy for nursing education reform were instrumental in this achievement.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
A. Florence Nightingale is known as the founder of modern nursing, but she was not involved in establishing the first integrated basic nursing degree program in Canada.
C. Edna Moore was a prominent nurse educator, but she did not have a direct role in establishing the specific program mentioned.
D. Lillian Wald was a pioneer in public health nursing in the United States, not Canada, and was not associated with the establishment of the mentioned program.
A charge nurse notes that a staff nurse delegates an unfair share of tasks to the assistive personnel (AP) and the nurses on next shift report the staff nurse frequently leaves tasks uncompleted. Which of the following statements should the charge nurse make to resolve this conflict?
A. "I need to talk to you about unit expectations regarding delegating and completing tasks."
B. "Several staff members have commented that you don't do your fair share of the work."
C. "If you don't do your share of the work, I will have to inform the nurse manager."
D. "You have been very inconsiderate of others by not completing your share of the work."
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because it focuses on addressing the issue of unfair task delegation and incomplete tasks in a professional and constructive manner. The charge nurse should discuss unit expectations with the staff nurse to clarify responsibilities and expectations. This approach promotes open communication, sets clear guidelines, and allows for mutual understanding and accountability.
Option B is incorrect as it involves hearsay and does not address the issue directly. Option C is also incorrect as it threatens the staff nurse instead of providing guidance on how to improve. Option D is incorrect because it uses accusatory language and does not offer a solution to the problem. In summary, option A is the best choice as it promotes effective communication and problem-solving to resolve the conflict.
A client diagnosed with schizophrenia states, "Can't you hear him? It's the devil. He's telling me I'm going to hell."Â Which is the most appropriate nursing reply?
A. Did you take your medicine this morning?
B. You are not going to hell. You are a good person.
C. I'm sure the voices sound scary. The devil is not talking to you. This is part of your illness.
D. The devil only talks to people who are receptive to his influence.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because it acknowledges the client's experience while also providing reassurance and reality orientation. By stating that the voices sound scary and attributing them to the illness, the nurse validates the client's feelings and offers a non-judgmental response. This approach helps build trust and rapport with the client, while also providing education about the nature of their symptoms.
Choice A is incorrect because it focuses solely on medication adherence without addressing the client's concerns. Choice B is incorrect because it dismisses the client's experience and offers a blanket reassurance without addressing the delusional content. Choice D is incorrect because it oversimplifies the situation and does not provide therapeutic communication or support for the client's distress.
Step-by-step rationale for why B is correct:
1. Validity in research refers to the accuracy of the measure in assessing what it intends to measure.
2. Accurate measures ensure that the data collected reflects the true characteristics of the variables being studied.
3. If a measure is not accurate, the results may be misleading or invalid.
4. Therefore, the accuracy of the measure (choice B) is crucial to ensure the validity of the research findings.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
A: The consistency of the measure (choice A) refers to reliability, not validity.
C: The reliability of the sample (choice C) is related to replicability and stability, not validity.
D: The degree to which data supports a hypothesis (choice D) relates to the strength of evidence, not the accuracy of the measure.
In a hospital's emergency operations plan, what would be the expected roles of the security department? (Select all that apply.)
A. Overseeing facility security
B. Lockdown of the facility as necessary
C. Managing people entering and leaving the hospital
D. Developing or refining the hospital's emergency operations plan
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because overseeing facility security is a primary role of the security department in a hospital's emergency operations plan. Security personnel are responsible for ensuring the safety and security of the hospital premises, patients, and staff during emergencies.
Choice B, lockdown of the facility, is sometimes a joint effort between security and other departments, but it is not solely the responsibility of the security department. Choice C, managing people entering and leaving the hospital, is typically the role of hospital staff or emergency management personnel, not exclusively security.
Choice D, developing or refining the hospital's emergency operations plan, is usually the responsibility of the emergency management team or a specific committee, not the security department.
Which of the following statements about children and environmental hazards is correct?
A. The prevalence of autism is directly related to the increase in environmental toxins.
B. Children are more susceptible to environmental toxins because of their smaller
D. The incidence of asthma among children has been decreasing.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B. Children are more susceptible to environmental toxins because of their smaller body size, higher metabolic rate, and developing organ systems. Children have higher exposure to toxins relative to their body weight, making them more vulnerable to adverse health effects. This increased susceptibility can lead to various health issues and developmental problems.
Choice A is incorrect because the prevalence of autism is a complex issue with multiple factors involved, including genetic and environmental factors. While environmental toxins may play a role in autism, it is not the sole cause.
Choice D is incorrect because the incidence of asthma among children has actually been increasing in recent years, likely due to various environmental factors such as air pollution and allergens.
A nurse on a surgical unit is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following is the priority action of the nurse?
A. Taking a telephone prescription about a client who is to be transferred from PACU
B. Assessing a client who experiences unilateral calf pain when ambulating
C. Reinforcing a client's dressing for the surgical site of an above-the-knee amputation
D. Reassuring the partner of a client who sustained a closed head injury
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Assessing a client who experiences unilateral calf pain when ambulating. This is the priority action because unilateral calf pain can be a sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a potentially life-threatening condition. The nurse should assess the client immediately to rule out DVT and prevent complications.
Choice A is incorrect because taking a telephone prescription can be delegated to another qualified staff member, and it is not an urgent priority. Choice C is incorrect because reinforcing a dressing for an above-the-knee amputation, while important, is not as urgent as assessing for a potential DVT. Choice D is incorrect because reassuring the partner of a client with a closed head injury, while supportive, is not the priority compared to assessing a client with potential DVT.
A staff nurse has applied for a promotion. The hiring manager insinuates that if there was a sexual relationship between the two of them, the nurse's promotion request would get increased consideration. Which of the following actions should the staff nurse take first?
A. A. Tell the hiring manager in clear terms that this conduct causes feelings of discomfort and that the behavior should stop immediately.
B. B. Report the behavior to the nurse manager.
C. C. Create a written document of the incident and store the document in a safe place.
D. D. Seek help from a trustworthy friend.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A. The staff nurse should first directly address the inappropriate behavior with the hiring manager. By clearly stating that the conduct causes discomfort and requesting it to stop immediately, the nurse sets clear boundaries and asserts their rights. This action establishes a record of the nurse's response to the misconduct and gives the hiring manager the opportunity to rectify the situation. It also empowers the nurse to advocate for themselves in a professional manner.
Summary:
- B: Reporting to the nurse manager can be done after addressing the hiring manager directly.
- C: Creating a written document can be important but should follow direct communication.
- D: Seeking help from a friend can provide support but should not replace direct confrontation with the hiring manager.
What nursing intervention best demonstrates a commitment to client autonomy?
A. Establishing client-centered goals for decreased chronic pain.
B. Assessing a client for potential postprocedural complications.
C. Collaborating with a client while developing nursing care plan.
D. Encouraging a patient to ambulate independently following surgery.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because collaborating with a client while developing a nursing care plan empowers the client to actively participate in decision-making about their own care, respecting their autonomy. This intervention allows the client to express their preferences, values, and needs, leading to a more individualized and client-centered approach.
A: Establishing client-centered goals is important but doesn't necessarily demonstrate direct commitment to client autonomy as it may not involve active collaboration with the client.
B: Assessing for complications is essential for client safety but doesn't directly involve the client in decision-making.
D: Encouraging ambulation is beneficial for patient recovery but may not fully engage the client in the decision-making process regarding their care.
About these LPN exams safety and infection control questions
LPN exams safety and infection control practice questions, set 11 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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