LPN exams safety and infection control practice questions, set 6
LPN exams · safety and infection control
LPN exams safety and infection control practice questionsset 6
You stop the harm first: isolation, falls, equipment, and the order that keeps the unit safe. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five safety and infection control questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
As the drilling supervisor, Travis is responsible for getting the rig dismantled, moved, and set up
A. What dimension of transformational leadership is he demonstrating when he asks the workers to try to identify safer ways of carrying out the move?
B. idealized influence
C. inspirational motivation
D. intellectual stimulation
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — intellectual stimulation
The correct answer is D: intellectual stimulation. This dimension of transformational leadership involves encouraging innovation, creativity, and problem-solving. By asking the workers to identify safer ways of carrying out the move, Travis is stimulating their intellect and promoting a culture of continuous improvement. This approach fosters critical thinking and empowers employees to contribute ideas.
Other choices are incorrect:
A: While the scenario involves encouraging workers to identify safer ways, it focuses on stimulating their intellect rather than idealized influence, which involves setting an example and instilling pride.
B: Idealized influence relates to establishing trust and admiration, which is not the focus of the scenario.
C: Inspirational motivation involves inspiring and motivating others towards a shared vision, not specifically focusing on intellectual stimulation.
Question 2
Which of these nursing diagnoses, appropriate for elderly clients, would indicate the client is at greatest risk for falls?
A. Sensory perceptual alterations related to decreased vision
B. Alteration in mobility related to fatigue
C. Impaired gas exchange related to retained secretions
D. Altered patterns of urinary elimination related to nocturia
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Sensory perceptual alterations related to decreased vision
The correct answer is A: Sensory perceptual alterations related to decreased vision. Elderly clients with decreased vision are at greater risk for falls due to impaired depth perception, reduced awareness of obstacles, and difficulty navigating their environment. This nursing diagnosis directly impacts the client's ability to detect potential fall hazards.
Incorrect Choices:
B: Alteration in mobility related to fatigue - Fatigue may contribute to falls but is not as directly related to fall risk as sensory perceptual alterations.
C: Impaired gas exchange related to retained secretions - This nursing diagnosis is not directly associated with an increased risk of falls.
D: Altered patterns of urinary elimination related to nocturia - Nocturia may impact mobility during nighttime bathroom trips but is not as critical in fall risk assessment compared to sensory perceptual alterations.
Question 3
After an explosion at a factory one of the employees approaches the nurse and says, “I am an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) at the local hospital.†Which of these tasks should the nurse assign first to this worker who wants to help care for the wounded workers?
A. Get temperatures
B. Take blood pressure
C. Palpate pulses
D. Check alertness
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Check alertness
The correct answer is D: Check alertness. This task should be assigned first because it is crucial to ensure that the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is mentally and physically capable of providing assistance safely. Checking alertness helps determine if the worker is in a clear state of mind to follow instructions and make sound decisions in an emergency situation. This step is essential for the safety of both the UAP and the wounded workers.
Explanation for other choices:
A: Get temperatures - This task is important but not as critical as checking alertness in an emergency situation.
B: Take blood pressure - Monitoring blood pressure may be important, but it is not the most immediate concern when assessing the UAP's ability to help.
C: Palpate pulses - While assessing pulses is essential in healthcare, it is not as urgent as ensuring the UAP's alertness in this scenario.
Question 4
When a patient is diagnosed with pulmonary fibrosis, the nurse will teach the patient about the risk for poor oxygenation because of
A. too-rapid movement of blood flow through the pulmonary blood vessels
B. incomplete filling of the alveoli with air because of reduced respiratory ability
C. decreased transfer of oxygen into the blood because of thickening of the alveoli
D. mismatch between lung ventilation and blood flow through the blood vessels of the lung
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — decreased transfer of oxygen into the blood because of thickening of the alveoli
The correct answer is C because in pulmonary fibrosis, there is thickening of the alveoli which leads to decreased transfer of oxygen into the blood. This happens because the thickened alveolar walls make it harder for oxygen to pass from the air sacs into the bloodstream. This results in poor oxygenation of the blood.
Option A is incorrect because too-rapid movement of blood flow through the pulmonary blood vessels does not directly affect oxygenation in pulmonary fibrosis.
Option B is incorrect because incomplete filling of the alveoli with air due to reduced respiratory ability may impact oxygenation, but this is not the primary mechanism in pulmonary fibrosis.
Option D is incorrect because a mismatch between lung ventilation and blood flow through the blood vessels is not the main issue in pulmonary fibrosis; it is more relevant in conditions like pulmonary embolism.
Question 5
Upon skin inspection of an older adult, the coccyx wound is noted to be intact, reddened, and non-blanchable. What is the best way to document the nurse's assessment finding?
A. As a stage I pressure injury.
B. As a stage II pressure injury.
C. As a stage III pressure injury.
D. As a stage IV pressure injury.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — As a stage I pressure injury.
The correct way to document the nurse's assessment finding of an intact, reddened, and non-blanchable coccyx wound in an older adult is as a stage I pressure injury. A stage I pressure injury is characterized by intact skin with non-blanchable redness. In this case, the skin is intact, showing the initial signs of tissue damage due to pressure. Stages II, III, and IV pressure injuries involve more severe damage to the skin and underlying tissues. Stage II involves partial-thickness skin loss, stage III involves full-thickness skin loss, and stage IV involves full-thickness skin loss with extensive tissue necrosis. Since the coccyx wound is only showing redness without any loss of skin integrity, it aligns with a stage I pressure injury. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they describe more advanced stages of pressure injuries with skin breakdown, which is not present in this case.
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Question 6
A parent calls the hospital hot line and is connected to the triage nurse. The caller proclaims: 'I found my child with odd stuff coming from the mouth and an unmarked bottle nearby.' Which of these comments would be the best tool for the nurse to determine if the child has swallowed a corrosive substance?
A. Ask the child if the mouth is burning or throat pain is present.'
B. Take the child's pulse at the wrist and see if the child is has trouble breathing lying flat.'
C. What color is the child's lips and nails and has the child voided today?'
D. Has the child had vomiting, diarrhea or stomach cramps?'
Correct answer:
Rationale: Asking the child if the mouth is burning or if there is throat pain is the best tool for the nurse to determine if the child has swallowed a corrosive substance because it directly assesses the immediate symptoms related to ingestion of such substances. Corrosive substances can cause burning sensations in the mouth and throat, indicating potential damage. This question helps the nurse quickly assess the severity of the situation and determine the need for urgent medical intervention.
Summary:
- Option A is correct as it directly addresses symptoms of corrosive substance ingestion.
- Option B is incorrect as it focuses on pulse and breathing, not specific to corrosive substance ingestion.
- Option C is irrelevant to assessing corrosive substance ingestion.
- Option D is not as direct as Option A in addressing immediate symptoms of corrosive substance ingestion.
Which of the following best describes primary health care?
A. A comprehensive way to address issues of social justice
B. Giving care to manage acute or chronic conditions
C. Giving direct care to ill individuals within their family setting
D. Having the goal of health promotion and disease prevention
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because primary health care is a comprehensive approach that addresses not just individual health needs, but also social determinants of health, promoting equity and social justice. It focuses on empowering individuals and communities to take control of their health.
Choice B is incorrect because primary health care is not limited to managing acute or chronic conditions; it encompasses a broader spectrum of services.
Choice C is incorrect as primary health care extends beyond direct care to individuals within their family setting to encompass a broader community-based approach.
Choice D is incorrect because while health promotion and disease prevention are key components of primary health care, it is not the sole goal. Primary health care aims to provide holistic care that addresses social, economic, and environmental factors impacting health.
While assessing a client's peripheral IV site, the nurse observes a streak of red along the vein path and palpates a 4-cm venous cord. How should the nurse document this finding?
A. Grade 3 phlebitis at IV site
B. Infection at IV site
C. Thrombosed area at IV site
D. Infiltration at IV site
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Grade 3 phlebitis at IV site. This is because the presence of a red streak along the vein path and a palpable 4-cm venous cord are classic signs of phlebitis, indicating inflammation of the vein. Grade 3 phlebitis specifically refers to visible redness, pain, and swelling along the vein. Phlebitis can be caused by mechanical irritation, chemical irritation, or infection. It is important to document this finding accurately to ensure appropriate treatment and monitoring.
Summary of other choices:
B: Infection at IV site - While infection can cause phlebitis, the red streak and venous cord are more indicative of inflammation rather than infection.
C: Thrombosed area at IV site - Thrombosis involves the formation of a blood clot in the vein, which would present differently than the red streak and venous cord.
D: Infiltration at IV site - Infiltration
A patient has a PaO2 of 50 mm Hg and a PaCO2 of 42 mm Hg because of an intrapulmonary shunt. Which therapy is the patient most likely to respond best to?
A. Positive pressure ventilation
B. Oxygen administration at a FIO2 of 100%
C. Administration of O2 per nasal cannula at 1 to 3 L/min
D. Clearance of airway secretions with coughing and suctioning
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Positive pressure ventilation. Positive pressure ventilation helps improve oxygenation by increasing the mean airway pressure, which helps recruit collapsed alveoli and improve ventilation-perfusion matching in the presence of an intrapulmonary shunt. This therapy can effectively increase the PaO2 levels in this patient.
Choice B: Oxygen administration at a FIO2 of 100% may not be sufficient to overcome the intrapulmonary shunt and improve oxygenation significantly.
Choice C: Administration of O2 per nasal cannula at 1 to 3 L/min may not provide enough oxygen to overcome the shunting effect and improve oxygenation adequately.
Choice D: Clearance of airway secretions with coughing and suctioning may be beneficial for airway clearance but is not directly related to correcting the underlying oxygenation issue caused by the intrapulmonary shunt.
A nurse is caring for a client who is dying of metastatic breast cancer. She has a prescription for an opioid pain medication PRN. The nurse is concerned that administering a dose of pain medication might hasten the client's death. Which of the following ethical principles should the nurse use to support the decision not to administer the medication?
A. Utilitarianism
B. Nonmaleficence
C. Fidelity
D. Veracity
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Nonmaleficence. Nonmaleficence is the ethical principle that emphasizes the obligation to do no harm to the patient. In this scenario, the nurse's primary concern should be to alleviate the client's pain and suffering, as withholding pain medication would go against the principle of nonmaleficence. Administering the medication is in the client's best interest to provide comfort and maintain dignity in the end-of-life care.
Summary:
A: Utilitarianism focuses on the greatest good for the greatest number of people, which may conflict with the individual patient's well-being.
C: Fidelity pertains to keeping promises and being faithful to commitments, which is not directly relevant to the ethical dilemma presented.
D: Veracity refers to truth-telling and honesty, which is important but not the primary ethical principle to consider in this situation.
A medical-surgical nurse is concerned about the incidence of complications related to IV therapy, including bloodstream infection. Which intervention should the nurse suggest to the management team to make the biggest impact on decreasing complications?
A. Initiate a dedicated team to insert access devices.
B. Require additional education for all nurses.
C. Limit the use of peripheral venous access devices.
D. Perform quality control testing on skin preparation products.
Correct answer:
Correct Answer: A - Initiate a dedicated team to insert access devices.
Rationale:
1. Specialized team: Dedicated team ensures consistent, skilled insertion, reducing risk of complications.
2. Expertise: Specialized team likely has advanced training and experience, leading to better outcomes.
3. Standardization: Consistent approach reduces variability and error in device insertion process.
4. Monitoring: Dedicated team allows for ongoing monitoring and improvement of insertion practices.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Requiring additional education for all nurses may improve knowledge but doesn't address consistency in practice.
C: Limiting use of devices may not be practical and could limit patient access to necessary therapy.
D: Quality control testing on skin preparation products is important but doesn't directly address insertion technique or consistency.
A nurse is caring for a client who is dying of metastatic breast cancer. She has a prescription for an opioid pain medication PRN. The nurse is concerned that administering a dose of pain medication might hasten the client's death. Which of the following ethical principles should the nurse use to support the decision not to administer the medication?
A. A. Utilitarianism
B. B. Nonmaleficence
C. C. Fidelity
D. D. Veracity
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B. Nonmaleficence. Nonmaleficence is the ethical principle of "do no harm." In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize relieving the client's pain and suffering while ensuring that the medication does not cause harm or hasten the client's death. Administering the pain medication in this context aligns with the principle of nonmaleficence.
Choice A (Utilitarianism) focuses on the greatest good for the greatest number and may prioritize the client's comfort over prolonging life, which is not the main concern in this scenario. Choice C (Fidelity) relates to being faithful to commitments and agreements and does not directly address the issue of administering pain medication. Choice D (Veracity) pertains to truthfulness and honesty in communication, which is not directly relevant to the decision of administering the pain medication in this situation.
The Industrial Revolution caused earlier caregiving approachesâ€â€where care was provided by families, friends, and neighboursâ€â€to become inadequate because of constantly increasing
A. Which situation also contributed to the inadequacy of caregiving approaches at this time?
B. Ongoing wars, which caused frequent deaths and injuries
C. Horrific plagues that swept through Europe
D. Migration and urbanization
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Migration and urbanization. The Industrial Revolution led to rapid urbanization and migration as people moved from rural areas to cities for employment in factories. This caused a breakdown in traditional caregiving structures as families were separated, leading to inadequate care from families, friends, and neighbors. This shift in population dynamics disrupted the close-knit support systems that had previously existed in rural communities.
Choice A (Ongoing wars) is incorrect because while wars could have strained caregiving resources, the primary reason for inadequacy during the Industrial Revolution was related to urbanization and migration.
Choice C (Horrific plagues) is also incorrect as it refers to a different historical context and does not directly relate to the inadequacy of caregiving approaches during the Industrial Revolution.
Which community health nursing activity demonstrates tertiary prevention related to mental health?
A. Disseminating information about mental health to community organizations
B. Partnering with public health nurses (PHNs) for early identification of children with mental health challenges
C. Providing case management services that link clients with serious mental illnesses to mental health and community support services
D. Screening clients at high risk for mental disorders
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because providing case management services that link clients with serious mental illnesses to mental health and community support services is an example of tertiary prevention in mental health. Tertiary prevention focuses on reducing the impact of established diseases by preventing complications and promoting rehabilitation. This activity helps individuals with serious mental illnesses access necessary support services to manage their condition and prevent further deterioration.
Choice A is incorrect as it relates to primary prevention by raising awareness and promoting mental health knowledge. Choice B is incorrect as it pertains to secondary prevention by early identification and intervention. Choice D is also incorrect as it involves screening for mental disorders, which falls under primary or secondary prevention but not tertiary prevention.
A nurse manager observes an unknown man in a laboratory coat making copies of a client's medical record. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?
A. Notify hospital security.
B. Approach the man and ask why he is making copies.
C. Inform the nursing supervisor.
D. Report the observation to the nurse caring for that client.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Approach the man and ask why he is making copies. This is the first action the nurse should take to immediately address the situation and gather more information. By approaching the man, the nurse can assess the situation directly and potentially stop any unauthorized access to the client's medical record. This action allows for a real-time response and may prevent any further breach of confidentiality.
Other choices are incorrect because:
A: Notifying hospital security as the first action may cause a delay in addressing the situation directly.
C: Informing the nursing supervisor may be appropriate but should not be the first action as it does not address the immediate concern.
D: Reporting the observation to the nurse caring for the client may not be effective in stopping the unauthorized access and protecting the client's confidentiality.
About these LPN exams safety and infection control questions
LPN exams safety and infection control practice questions, set 6 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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