You match developmental age, safety, and family teaching instead of treating the child as a small adult. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five pediatrics questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A woman at 38 weeks of gestation is admitted in early labor with ruptured membranes. The nurse determines that the client's oral temperature is 38.9°C (102°F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?
A. Recheck the client's temperature in 4 hours.
B. Administer glucocorticoids intramuscularly.
C. Assess the odor of the amniotic fluid.
D. Prepare the client for emergency cesarean section.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Assess the odor of the amniotic fluid.
The correct answer is C: Assess the odor of the amniotic fluid. This is the appropriate nursing action because the woman is at risk for chorioamnionitis due to the elevated temperature and ruptured membranes. Assessing the odor of the amniotic fluid can help in identifying signs of infection, as foul-smelling amniotic fluid may indicate chorioamnionitis. This can guide further interventions and management, such as initiating antibiotics.
Choice A is incorrect as waiting 4 hours to recheck the temperature can delay necessary interventions for potential infection. Choice B is also incorrect as administering glucocorticoids is not the immediate priority in this situation. Choice D is incorrect as preparing for an emergency cesarean section is not warranted solely based on the client's temperature and ruptured membranes without further assessment for infection.
Question 2
The nurse is providing education for disease prevention to the adult female patient. Which factor puts the patient at a higher risk for multisystem disease processes such as cardiac issues, gynecological issues, and cancers?
A. Consuming two glasses of wine a week
B. Smoking two packs of cigarettes a day
C. Having a body mass index of over 32
D. Having poor intake of calcium and vegetables
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Smoking two packs of cigarettes a day
The correct answer is B: Smoking two packs of cigarettes a day. Smoking is a major risk factor for multisystem diseases like cardiac issues, gynecological issues, and cancers due to the harmful chemicals in tobacco smoke. Smoking is linked to heart disease, lung cancer, cervical cancer, and other health issues.
A: Consuming two glasses of wine a week is not a significant risk factor for multisystem diseases compared to smoking. Moderate alcohol consumption may even have some health benefits.
C: Having a body mass index of over 32 is a risk factor for certain health conditions like diabetes and hypertension, but it is not as directly linked to multisystem diseases as smoking.
D: Having poor intake of calcium and vegetables can lead to deficiencies and certain health issues, but it is not as strongly associated with multisystem diseases as smoking.
Question 3
During a well-child visit, a 10-year-old child is found to be above the 95th percentile for weight and reports watching more than two hours of television daily. An appropriate nursing diagnosis for this child is:
A. Imbalanced Nutrition: More than body requirements
B. Altered Growth and Development
C. Ineffective Coping
D. Altered Family Processes
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Imbalanced Nutrition: More than body requirements
The correct nursing diagnosis for a 10-year-old child who is above the 95th percentile for weight and watches more than two hours of television daily would be 'Imbalanced Nutrition: More than body requirements.' This diagnosis reflects the excessive intake of nutrients compared to the child's energy expenditure, which can contribute to weight gain. 'Altered Growth and Development' (choice B) is not the most appropriate diagnosis in this scenario, as the primary concern is related to nutrition and sedentary behavior rather than developmental issues. 'Ineffective Coping' (choice C) and 'Altered Family Processes' (choice D) are also not relevant to the child's weight status and television habits. Monitoring and addressing the child's dietary habits and sedentary behavior are essential to promote a healthier lifestyle and prevent further weight-related issues.
Question 4
A 3-month-old infant has been hospitalized with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). What is the priority intervention?
A. Administering an antiviral agent
B. Clustering care to conserve energy
C. Offering oral fluids to promote hydration
D. Providing an antitussive agent when necessary
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Clustering care to conserve energy
The priority intervention for a 3-month-old infant hospitalized with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is to cluster care to conserve energy. Infants with RSV often have difficulty breathing and need to rest frequently. Clustering care involves grouping nursing interventions to allow for longer periods of rest between activities, which helps prevent exhaustion and conserve the infant's energy. Administering an antiviral agent is not the primary intervention for RSV, as it is a viral infection and antiviral agents are not typically used for RSV. Offering oral fluids is important for hydration but may not be the priority when the infant is struggling to breathe. Providing an antitussive agent should be done judiciously and under medical guidance, as suppressing the cough reflex can be detrimental in RSV cases where coughing helps clear airway secretions.
Question 5
Which technique should the nurse recommend to the postpartum patient in order to prevent nipple trauma?
A. Assess the nipples before each feeding.
B. Limit the feeding time to less than 5 minutes.
C. Wash the nipples daily with mild soap and water.
D. Position the infant so the nipple is far back in the mouth.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Position the infant so the nipple is far back in the mouth.
The correct answer is D: Position the infant so the nipple is far back in the mouth. This technique helps prevent nipple trauma by ensuring that the baby latches onto the breast correctly, with a deep latch that prevents excessive pressure and friction on the nipple. By positioning the nipple far back in the baby's mouth, the baby can effectively suckle and draw milk without causing damage to the nipple.
Choice A is incorrect because simply assessing the nipples before each feeding does not actively prevent trauma. Choice B is incorrect as limiting feeding time to less than 5 minutes can lead to inadequate milk transfer and potential nipple trauma due to improper latch. Choice C is incorrect as washing the nipples daily with soap and water can actually strip the skin of natural oils and increase the risk of dryness and cracking, leading to trauma.
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Question 6
What should an adolescent with type 1 diabetes do if an insulin reaction is experienced while at a basketball game?
A. Call your parents immediately.
B. Buy a soda and hamburger to eat.
C. Administer insulin as soon as possible.
D. Leave the arena and rest until the symptoms subside.
Correct answer:
Choosing option B, 'Buy a soda and hamburger to eat,' is the most appropriate action for an adolescent with type 1 diabetes experiencing an insulin reaction during a basketball game. In this situation, the individual is likely experiencing hypoglycemia, and consuming a soda provides a quick source of sugar to raise blood glucose levels rapidly. The hamburger can offer a more sustained release of energy due to its protein and fat content. Option A is incorrect because while contacting parents for help may be necessary in some situations, immediate action to address hypoglycemia is crucial. Option C is incorrect because administering insulin would further lower blood sugar levels, worsening the condition. Option D is incorrect as leaving the arena without addressing the hypoglycemia can lead to a worsening of symptoms and potentially dangerous outcomes.
The nurse is presenting information to new parents regarding screening of their newborn. Which information does the nurse identify as being most important to the parents?
A. All babies born in the United States are screened for specific conditions.
B. Newborn screenings consist of a blood test and a hearing test.
C. Each state has statutes or regulations on newborn screening.
D. Screenings are for infections, genetic diseases, and inherited disorders.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because it accurately summarizes the purpose of newborn screenings, which include detecting infections, genetic diseases, and inherited disorders early on. This information is crucial for parents to understand the comprehensive nature of newborn screenings.
A: This choice is incorrect because it is a general statement about newborn screenings in the United States, but it does not specifically address the important details about the purpose of the screenings.
B: This choice is incorrect because it only mentions two specific tests within newborn screenings and does not encompass the full scope of conditions that screenings aim to detect.
C: This choice is incorrect because it focuses on the legal aspect of newborn screenings rather than the information that is essential for parents to know about the screenings themselves.
The nurse is observing a 38-week gestation newborn in the nursery. Data reveals periods of apnea lasting approximately 10 seconds followed by a period of rapid respirations. The infant’s color and heart rate remain unchanged. The nurse suspects that the infant
A. is exhibiting signs of RDS.
B. requires tactile stimulation around the clock to ensure that apneic periods do not progress further.
C. is experiencing periodic breathing episodes and will require continuous monitoring while in the nursery unit.
D. requires the use of CPAP to promote airway expansion.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because the infant is exhibiting periodic breathing, a common phenomenon in newborns where they have brief periods of apnea followed by rapid respirations. This is a normal finding in many healthy newborns and does not necessarily indicate a serious medical issue. Continuous monitoring is necessary to ensure the infant's respiratory pattern stabilizes over time.
Choice A (RDS) is incorrect because the infant's color and heart rate are unchanged, which are not typical signs of respiratory distress syndrome.
Choice B is incorrect because tactile stimulation is not needed for periodic breathing episodes in newborns unless there are additional concerning symptoms present.
Choice D is incorrect because CPAP is not typically indicated for periodic breathing episodes in a healthy newborn without other respiratory issues.
The nurse is providing care for a premature neonate born at 28 weeks gestation who is experiencing respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the neonate’s respiratory status is deteriorating?
A. Pao2 is 48 and Paco2 is 55 mm Hg on 90% oxygen.
B. Respiratory rate is 58 breaths per minute.
C. Breath sounds on auscultation are decreased.
D. Heart rate is 162 beats per minute.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A. A Pao2 of 48 and Paco2 of 55 mm Hg on 90% oxygen indicates severe hypoxemia and hypercapnia, suggesting worsening respiratory status in a neonate with RDS. Here's a step-by-step rationale: 1. Hypoxemia (low Pao2) indicates inadequate oxygenation, which can lead to tissue hypoxia and organ damage. 2. Hypercapnia (high Paco2) is a sign of inadequate ventilation and respiratory acidosis. 3. High oxygen requirement (90%) despite low Pao2 suggests poor oxygen exchange. 4. Overall, these findings point to respiratory failure and deterioration in the neonate's condition. Summary: B is incorrect because an elevated respiratory rate is a compensatory mechanism for respiratory distress. C is incorrect as decreased breath sounds can be expected in RDS. D is incorrect as an elevated heart rate can be a compensatory response to hypoxemia
When assessing a 30-year-old female in labor, what should the EMT do?
A. Ask the mother when she is expecting to deliver.
B. Avoid questioning the patient about her medical history.
C. Determine the stage of her labor by examining her.
D. Recall that delivery is imminent if she is crowning.
Correct answer:
During the assessment of a 30-year-old female in labor, the EMT should be aware that delivery is imminent if she is crowning. Crowning indicates that the baby's head is visible at the vaginal opening, signaling that the birth is progressing rapidly and the baby will soon be delivered. This is a critical moment that requires preparedness for the birth process and ensuring a safe delivery environment. Choice A is incorrect because asking the mother when she is expecting to deliver is not relevant when the baby's head is visible at the vaginal opening. Choice B is incorrect as obtaining the patient's medical history is essential for providing appropriate care. Choice C is incorrect because determining the stage of labor by examining the patient is important but recognizing crowning indicates that delivery is imminent and requires immediate action.
During a primary survey of a child with partial thickness burns over the upper body areas, what action should the nurse take first?
A. Inspect the child's skin color.
B. Assess for a patent airway.
C. Observe for symmetric breathing.
D. Palpate the child's pulse.
Correct answer:
When managing a child with partial thickness burns over the upper body areas, the priority action during the primary survey is to assess for a patent airway. This step is crucial as burns in this region can lead to airway compromise, potentially causing rapid deterioration in the child's condition. Checking for a patent airway ensures that the child can breathe adequately, which is essential for oxygenation and ventilation. Inspecting the child's skin color (Choice A) is an important assessment but should follow ensuring a patent airway. Observing for symmetric breathing (Choice C) is relevant, but the immediate focus should be on securing the airway. Palpating the child's pulse (Choice D) is also a vital assessment, but in this scenario, the priority is to assess and maintain a clear airway to support respiratory function and oxygen delivery.
While waiting for the administration of air pressure to reduce the intussusception, the boy passes a normal brown stool. Which nursing action is the most appropriate for the nurse to take?
A. notify the practitioner
B. measure abdominal girth
C. auscultate for bowel sounds
D. take vital signs, including blood pressure
Correct answer:
The correct answer is to notify the practitioner. The passage of a normal brown stool in a child with intussusception could indicate spontaneous reduction of the intussusception. It is crucial to inform the practitioner immediately so that they can reassess the situation and determine the next steps, which may include adjusting the planned intervention. Measuring abdominal girth (choice B) may be important in assessing for abdominal distension but is not the most immediate action required in this scenario. Auscultating for bowel sounds (choice C) is a routine nursing assessment but does not take precedence over notifying the practitioner in this critical situation. Taking vital signs, including blood pressure (choice D), is also important but notifying the practitioner is more urgent to address the unexpected change in the patient's condition.
You arrive at the scene shortly after a 3-year-old female experienced a seizure. The child, who is being held by her mother, is conscious and crying. The mother tells you that her daughter has been ill recently and has a temperature of 102.5°F. What is the MOST appropriate treatment for this child?
A. Oxygen via non-rebreathing mask, place the child in a tub of cold water to lower her body temperature, and transport.
B. Oxygen via the blow-by technique, transport, and request a paramedic intercept so an anticonvulsant drug can be given.
C. Oxygen via non-rebreathing mask, avoid any measures to lower the child's body temperature, and transport at once.
D. Oxygen via the blow-by technique, remove clothing to help reduce her fever, and transport with continuous monitoring.
Correct answer:
The most appropriate treatment for a child who has experienced a seizure and has a fever includes administering oxygen via the blow-by technique, removing clothing to help reduce fever, and transporting the child with continuous monitoring. Choice A is incorrect because placing the child in a tub of cold water can lead to hypothermia and is not recommended for fever reduction. Choice B is incorrect as requesting an anticonvulsant drug without proper evaluation and assessment by a healthcare provider is not appropriate. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding measures to lower the child's body temperature can worsen the situation in case of febrile seizures. Therefore, the best course of action is to provide oxygen via the blow-by technique, remove excess clothing to reduce fever, and transport the child while continuously monitoring her condition.
A client in a prenatal clinic is pregnant and experiencing episodes of maternal hypotension. The client asks the nurse what causes these episodes. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
A. This is due to an increase in blood volume.
B. This is due to pressure from the uterus on the diaphragm.
C. This is due to the weight of the uterus on the vena cava.
D. This is due to increased cardiac output.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: This is due to the weight of the uterus on the vena cava. Maternal hypotension during pregnancy can occur when the growing uterus compresses the vena cava, reducing blood flow back to the heart and causing a drop in blood pressure. This compression can lead to decreased blood flow to the brain and other vital organs, resulting in symptoms of hypotension. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: An increase in blood volume during pregnancy typically leads to an increase in blood pressure, not hypotension.
B: Pressure from the uterus on the diaphragm may cause discomfort or shortness of breath but is not the primary cause of maternal hypotension.
D: Increased cardiac output is a normal adaptation in pregnancy to meet the demands of the growing fetus and placenta, but it does not directly cause maternal hypotension.
During Leopold maneuvers on a client in labor, which technique should be used by the nurse to identify the fetal lie?
A. Apply palms of both hands to sides of the uterus
B. Palpate the fundus of the uterus
C. Grasp the lower uterine segment between thumb and fingers
D. Stand facing the client's feet with fingertips outlining cephalic prominence
Correct answer:
The correct answer is option B: Palpate the fundus of the uterus. This technique helps the nurse identify the fetal lie by feeling for the position of the baby's head or buttocks at the top of the uterus. By palpating the fundus, the nurse can determine whether the baby is in a vertex (head down) or breech (head up) position. This method is effective in assessing the fetal lie as it provides direct information about the baby's orientation within the uterus.
Option A is incorrect because applying palms to the sides of the uterus does not specifically help identify the fetal lie. Option C is incorrect as grasping the lower uterine segment does not provide information on the fetal lie. Option D is incorrect because standing facing the client's feet with fingertips outlining cephalic prominence is not a technique used to determine fetal lie.
LPN exams pediatrics practice questions, set 6 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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