You match developmental age, safety, and family teaching instead of treating the child as a small adult. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five pediatrics questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
An adolescent is being taught about levonorgestrel contraception by a school nurse. What information should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. You should take the medication within 72 hours following unprotected sexual intercourse.
B. Do not take this medication if you are on an oral contraceptive.
C. If you do not start your period within 5 days of taking this medication, you will need a pregnancy test.
D. One dose of this medication will prevent pregnancy for 14 days after taking it.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — You should take the medication within 72 hours following unprotected sexual intercourse.
Step 1: Levonorgestrel is a type of emergency contraception that is most effective when taken within 72 hours after unprotected sex.
Step 2: Taking the medication within the specified time frame increases its effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
Step 3: Thus, the nurse should emphasize to the adolescent the importance of taking the medication promptly after unprotected intercourse.
Step 4: This information is crucial for the adolescent to understand the time-sensitive nature of levonorgestrel contraception.
Summary:
- Choice B is incorrect because it provides contradictory information. Levonorgestrel can be taken even if the individual is on an oral contraceptive.
- Choice C is incorrect as starting a period is not a reliable indicator of pregnancy. A pregnancy test is recommended if there are concerns.
- Choice D is incorrect because levonorgestrel is a single-dose emergency contraception and does not provide protection for 14 days.
Question 2
The nurse enters the room of a patient who just gave birth 2 days ago to a healthy newborn. The nurse asks her what her newborn's name is and she shrugs and says, 'I haven't thought about a name yet.' What priority is the nurse most concerned about with this patient?
A. The patient has not transitioned from the fourth stage of labor.
B. Parent-to-newborn attachment may be a concern.
C. The mother may be contemplating suicide.
D. Different cultural practices.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Parent-to-newborn attachment may be a concern.
The correct answer is B: Parent-to-newborn attachment may be a concern. The nurse is most concerned about the lack of bonding or attachment between the mother and her newborn, as indicated by the mother not having thought about a name yet. This lack of interest or engagement with the newborn could potentially impact the mother's ability to form a healthy attachment, which is crucial for the newborn's well-being. The nurse should prioritize assessing and supporting the mother in developing a bond with her baby.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect:
A: The patient not naming the newborn does not indicate she has not transitioned from the fourth stage of labor.
C: There is no evidence to suggest that the mother may be contemplating suicide based solely on her not naming the newborn.
D: Different cultural practices do not seem to be the primary concern in this scenario compared to the potential lack of parent-to-newborn attachment.
Question 3
A client gave birth 2 hours ago, and their blood pressure is 60/50 mm Hg. What action should the nurse take first?
A. Evaluate the firmness of the uterus.
B. Initiate oxygen therapy via a non-rebreather mask.
C. Administer oxytocin infusion.
D. Obtain a type and crossmatch.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Evaluate the firmness of the uterus.
The correct action for the nurse to take first is to evaluate the firmness of the uterus. This is because the client's low blood pressure may indicate postpartum hemorrhage, which is a common complication after childbirth. Assessing the firmness of the uterus helps determine if there is uterine atony, a leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. By addressing uterine atony promptly, the nurse can prevent further blood loss and stabilize the client's condition.
Summary:
- Option B, initiating oxygen therapy, is not the first priority as the client's low blood pressure is likely due to hemorrhage rather than hypoxemia.
- Option C, administering oxytocin infusion, may be necessary to address uterine atony but should only be done after assessing the firmness of the uterus.
- Option D, obtaining a type and crossmatch, is important for potential blood transfusion but is not the immediate priority compared to assessing for uterine atony.
Question 4
The breastfeeding patient should be taught a safe method to remove her breast from the baby's mouth. Which suggestion by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. Break the suction by inserting your finger into the corner of the infant's mouth.
B. A popping sound occurs when the breast is correctly removed from the infant's mouth.
C. Slowly remove the breast from the baby's mouth when the infant has fallen asleep and the jaws are relaxed.
D. Elicit the Moro reflex in the baby to wake the baby up, and remove the breast when the baby cries.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Break the suction by inserting your finger into the corner of the infant's mouth.
Rationale for correct answer (A):
1. Breaking the suction by inserting a finger into the corner of the infant's mouth is the most appropriate method to remove the breast safely.
2. This technique prevents trauma to the nipple and helps the baby release the latch gently.
3. It allows for a smooth and painless disengagement of the baby from the breast.
4. By breaking the suction first, the risk of causing discomfort or injury to both the mother and the baby is minimized.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
B. A popping sound is not a reliable indicator of correct breast removal and may lead to abrupt disengagement, causing pain and potential injury.
C. Removing the breast slowly while the baby is asleep can disrupt the baby's sleep and may not be gentle or safe.
D. Eliciting the Moro reflex is unnecessary and may startle the baby, leading to an abrupt disengagement that can cause discomfort and potential injury.
Question 5
Postnatal nurses expressed concern about neonatal pain management during painful interventions. Using evidence-based practice from research performed by Thakkar, Arora, Das, Javadekar, and Panigrahi (2016), which method of pain control will be used for heel sticks?
A. An anesthetic gel will be applied 20 minutes before the stick.
B. The stick will be administered while the neonate is breastfeeding.
C. A combination of stimulated sucking and receiving sucrose orally.
D. The neonate is stuck while the mother and neonate are en face.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — A combination of stimulated sucking and receiving sucrose orally.
The correct answer is C, a combination of stimulated sucking and receiving sucrose orally. Thakkar et al. (2016) found that this method effectively reduced pain response during heel sticks in neonates. Stimulated sucking triggers the release of endorphins, providing natural pain relief, while sucrose activates sweet taste receptors, further reducing pain perception. This dual approach addresses both physiological and psychological aspects of pain management in neonates.
Choice A (anesthetic gel) may not be as effective for heel sticks as it takes time to work and may not provide comprehensive pain relief. Choice B (breastfeeding) may distract the neonate but does not directly address pain management. Choice D (en face positioning) may promote bonding but does not offer a specific pain management strategy. Overall, choice C is supported by research and provides a holistic approach to neonatal pain control during heel sticks.
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Question 6
Which laboratory results might be expected if the mother’s Rh has type O blood and the newborn’s Apgar score is low?
A. Cardiac enzymes
B. Blood glucose
C. Electrolyte panel
D. Cord blood gas
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Cord blood gas. When the mother has Rh type O blood and the newborn's Apgar score is low, it indicates potential oxygenation issues during birth. Cord blood gas analysis is crucial to assess the newborn's oxygenation status and acid-base balance. A low Apgar score suggests the need to evaluate the newborn's respiratory and metabolic functions, which can be done through cord blood gas analysis.
A: Cardiac enzymes - Not relevant in this scenario as the focus is on oxygenation and respiratory function, not cardiac issues.
B: Blood glucose - Not directly related to the situation described, as low Apgar score and Rh blood type are more indicative of oxygenation and potential Rh incompatibility.
C: Electrolyte panel - While electrolyte imbalance is important, cord blood gas analysis provides more immediate information on oxygenation and acid-base balance, which are crucial in low Apgar score situations.
A parent brings an 18-month-old toddler to the clinic. The parent states, 'My child is so difficult to please, has temper tantrums, and annoys me by throwing food from the table.' What is the nurse's best response?
A. "Toddlers need discipline to prevent the development of antisocial behaviors."
B. "Toddlers are learning to assert independence, and this behavior is expected at this age."
C. "It is best to leave the toddler alone in the crib after calmly explaining why the behavior is unacceptable."
D. "This is the way a toddler expresses needs, and this behavior is acceptable during the initiative stage of development."
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: 'Toddlers are learning to assert independence, and this behavior is expected at this age.' At 18 months old, toddlers are in the stage of developing autonomy and testing boundaries. It is normal for them to exhibit behaviors such as temper tantrums and defiance as they explore their independence. Choice A is incorrect as discipline at this age is more about setting limits and providing guidance rather than preventing antisocial behaviors. Choice C is inappropriate as leaving a toddler alone in a crib after explaining unacceptable behavior is not a recommended approach for managing toddler behavior. Choice D is incorrect as the described behavior is typical of toddlers asserting independence, not related to the initiative stage of development. The best response involves acknowledging the child's developmental stage and understanding that these behaviors are part of their normal growth and development.
The mother of an 11-year-old girl confides to the nurse that her child has no interest in school activities, exercise, or even family outings. The most appropriate response by the nurse would be:
A. I would recommend that she see a counselor at school.
B. I would not worry; she will grow out of it.
C. Many girls this age go through a time of malaise and disinterest.
D. If she still feels the same way when you come back for the next well-child visit, I will recommend a therapist.
Correct answer:
When a child shows a lack of interest in various activities, including school, exercise, and family outings, it is essential to address the underlying reasons. Recommending that the child see a counselor at school is crucial to explore potential issues and provide appropriate support and guidance. This approach can help identify any emotional, social, or behavioral concerns the child may be experiencing and facilitate early intervention and support. Choice B is incorrect because dismissing the mother's concerns and assuming the child will grow out of it without addressing the issue is not appropriate. Choice C is incorrect because while some children may go through phases of disinterest, it is essential to investigate further rather than generalizing. Choice D is incorrect because waiting until the next visit without taking proactive steps to address the current lack of interest may delay necessary support and intervention.
The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) support group.
One of the teaching points will include diet and weight loss to decrease hirsutism and acne. What
is the reasoning for this rationale?
A. Diet and exercise will promote weight loss, which will decrease
hyperandrogenemia
B. Diet and exercise will decrease the risk of type 2 diabetes and gestational diabetes
C. Diet and exercise will decrease serum lipid levels and lower the risk for
cardiovascular disease.
D. Diet and exercise will increase the frequency of ovulation and menstruation and
increase fertility.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is missing from the choices provided. However, I can provide a rationale for each choice:
A: Diet and exercise can help promote weight loss, which can decrease hyperandrogenemia by reducing insulin resistance and decreasing androgen levels.
B: While diet and exercise can decrease the risk of type 2 diabetes and gestational diabetes in women with PCOS, this is not directly related to reducing hirsutism and acne symptoms.
C: Diet and exercise can improve lipid levels and reduce cardiovascular risk in women with PCOS, but this is not the primary goal when addressing hirsutism and acne.
D: Diet and exercise can improve ovulation and menstrual regularity, which may help with fertility in women with PCOS, but this is not directly related to reducing hirsutism and acne.
In summary, the correct answer should focus on how diet and weight loss can specifically impact hirsutism and acne in women with PCOS.
One principle to be followed for children with type 1 diabetes is to provide for the variability of the child's activity. What should the nurse teach the child about how to compensate for increased physical activity?
A. Eat more food when planning to exercise more than usual.
B. Take oral, not injectable insulin, on days of heavy exercise.
C. Take insulin in the morning when extra exercise is anticipated.
D. Eat foods that contain sugar to compensate for the extra exercise.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is to eat more food when planning to exercise more than usual. Increased physical activity requires more energy, so additional food intake is necessary to compensate for the increased energy expenditure. This helps maintain blood sugar levels within the target range. Choice B is incorrect because the mode of insulin administration does not change based on physical activity; the type and dose of insulin remain the same unless adjusted by a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect because insulin timing should not be adjusted solely based on anticipated exercise; consistent timing of insulin doses is crucial for stable blood sugar control. Choice D is incorrect because consuming foods with sugar may lead to unstable blood sugar levels and is not the recommended way to compensate for extra exercise, as it can result in sudden spikes and drops in blood glucose levels, affecting overall diabetes management.
What is the most important intervention to decrease the stressors of hospitalization for a 9-month-old infant being treated for a bacterial infection?
A. Encourage the infant's parents to remain at the bedside and actively participate in the infant's care.
B. Provide a brightly lit environment for the infant.
C. Play tapes of the mother's voice.
D. Assign the same nurse to the infant as much as possible.
Correct answer:
Encouraging the infant's parents to remain at the bedside and actively participate in the infant's care is crucial in decreasing the stressors of hospitalization for the infant. Parental presence provides comfort and security, promotes bonding, and maintains a sense of familiarity for the infant during a potentially stressful situation. This involvement can help reduce anxiety and promote better outcomes for the infant's emotional well-being and overall hospital experience. Providing a brightly lit environment (choice B) can actually increase stress for the infant, as infants generally prefer dimly lit environments for better sleep. Playing tapes of the mother's voice (choice C) may offer some comfort but does not substitute for parental presence. While assigning the same nurse to the infant (choice D) can provide continuity of care, it is not as effective as having the parents present for emotional support and bonding.
A nurse is caring for a patient who has just been diagnosed with chlamydia and wants to know when she can have sex with her boyfriend again. What is the best response from the nurse?
A. “You should not have sex until 7 days after you complete treatment and your partner gets treatment.â€
B. “You can have sex as soon as you finish the medicine.â€
C. “You can have sex once your partner takes the medicine.â€
D. “There is no need to wait.â€
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A. The rationale is as follows:
1. Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection that requires treatment to prevent transmission.
2. The patient should complete the full course of treatment to ensure the infection is cleared.
3. Waiting 7 days after completing treatment allows time for the medication to be effective and for the patient's partner to also receive treatment.
4. Having sex before completing treatment and ensuring the partner is treated can lead to re-infection and further transmission.
Therefore, choice A is the best response.
Summary of incorrect choices:
B: Incorrect as having sex immediately after finishing the medicine without waiting for partner treatment can lead to re-infection.
C: Incorrect as both partners need to complete treatment to prevent re-infection.
D: Incorrect as waiting is necessary to ensure the infection is fully treated and transmission is prevented.
The nurse is providing care to a patient who was just admitted to the labor and birth unit in active labor at term. The patient informed the nurse, “I have not received any prenatal care because I cannot afford to go to the doctor. And, this is my third baby, so I know what to expect.†What is the nurse’s primary concern when developing the patient’s plan of care?
A. Low birth weight
B. Oligohydramnios
C. Gestational diabetes
D. Gestational hypertension
Correct answer:
The nurse's primary concern when developing the plan of care for a patient who has not received prenatal care and is now in active labor is the risk of low birth weight for the baby. Prenatal care plays a crucial role in monitoring the health of the pregnant woman and her baby, ensuring appropriate growth and development, and identifying any potential issues early on. Without prenatal care, important factors such as maternal nutritional status, appropriate weight gain, screening for conditions that can affect the baby's growth, and management of any complications during pregnancy may not have been addressed. As a result, the baby is at increased risk for being born with a low birth weight, which can lead to various health problems and complications both immediately after birth and in the long term. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize monitoring and addressing the risk of low birth weight in this situation.
The nurse is providing care to a patient who was just admitted to the labor and birth unit in active labor at term. The patient informed the nurse, “I have not received any prenatal care because I cannot afford to go to the doctor. And, this is my third baby, so I know what to expect.†What is the nurse’s primary concern when developing the patient’s plan of care?
A. Low birth weight
B. Oligohydramnios
C. Gestational diabetes
D. Gestational hypertension
Correct answer:
The nurse's primary concern when developing the plan of care for a patient who has not received prenatal care and is now in active labor is the risk of low birth weight for the baby. Prenatal care plays a crucial role in monitoring the health of the pregnant woman and her baby, ensuring appropriate growth and development, and identifying any potential issues early on. Without prenatal care, important factors such as maternal nutritional status, appropriate weight gain, screening for conditions that can affect the baby's growth, and management of any complications during pregnancy may not have been addressed. As a result, the baby is at increased risk for being born with a low birth weight, which can lead to various health problems and complications both immediately after birth and in the long term. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize monitoring and addressing the risk of low birth weight in this situation.
A nurse in a prenatal clinic overhears a newly licensed nurse discussing conception with a client. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse requires intervention by the nurse?
A. Fertilization takes place in the outer third of the fallopian tube.
B. Implantation occurs between 6 to 10 days after conception.
C. Sperm remain viable in the woman's reproductive tract for 2 to 3 days.
D. Bleeding or spotting can accompany implantation.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because implantation actually occurs around 6-10 days after fertilization, not after conception. This is a critical distinction as conception refers to the union of sperm and egg to form a zygote, while fertilization specifically refers to the fusion of the genetic material. Therefore, the statement by the newly licensed nurse is inaccurate and requires intervention.
A: Fertilization typically occurs in the outer third of the fallopian tube, making this statement correct.
C: Sperm can indeed remain viable in the woman's reproductive tract for 2 to 3 days, indicating this statement is accurate.
D: Bleeding or spotting can indeed accompany implantation, making this statement correct.
In summary, choice B is incorrect because implantation occurs around 6-10 days after fertilization, not conception. Choices A, C, and D are all correct statements related to conception and fertilization.
LPN exams pediatrics practice questions, set 3 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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