You match developmental age, safety, and family teaching instead of treating the child as a small adult. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five pediatrics questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
As the newborn nursery nurse, you are assessing your patients. Which assessment warrants further investigation?
A. Irregular patterns of breathing with periods of apnea lasting 5 seconds
B. Periodic episodes of grunting during expiration
C. Breathing at a rate of 45 breaths per minute
D. Mild sternal retractions
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Periodic episodes of grunting during expiration
The correct answer is B: Periodic episodes of grunting during expiration. This warrants further investigation as grunting during expiration is a sign of respiratory distress in newborns, indicating potential respiratory compromise. It can be a sign of underlying lung pathology or inadequate oxygenation. It is important to assess and address this promptly to prevent further deterioration.
Incorrect choices:
A: Irregular patterns of breathing with periods of apnea lasting 5 seconds - While apnea can be concerning, it is common in newborns. This alone may not warrant immediate further investigation.
C: Breathing at a rate of 45 breaths per minute - A respiratory rate of 45 breaths per minute can be within normal range for a newborn. It may not be abnormal unless accompanied by other signs of distress.
D: Mild sternal retractions - Sternal retractions can be a sign of increased work of breathing, but mild retractions alone may not be as concerning as grunting during expiration.
Question 2
The RN in the newborn nursery is reviewing the newborn’s chart and notices that the bilirubin levels are elevated. What intervention should the nurse perform next?
A. Place the patient NPO and notify a physician.
B. Weigh the patient to see if weight loss has occurred.
C. Take the newborn’s vital signs and report to the physician.
D. Apply phototherapy according to the hospital protocol, then notify the physician.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Apply phototherapy according to the hospital protocol, then notify the physician.
The correct answer is D because elevated bilirubin levels in newborns indicate jaundice, which can lead to complications if not treated promptly. Phototherapy helps break down bilirubin and is the first-line treatment for neonatal jaundice. Applying phototherapy as per hospital protocol is essential to decrease bilirubin levels. Notifying the physician is also crucial for ongoing monitoring and management.
Choice A (Place the patient NPO and notify a physician) is incorrect because NPO status is not necessary for managing neonatal jaundice, and phototherapy is the primary intervention.
Choice B (Weigh the patient to see if weight loss has occurred) is incorrect because weight loss is not directly related to elevated bilirubin levels in newborns.
Choice C (Take the newborn’s vital signs and report to the physician) is incorrect because while vital signs are important, the immediate intervention for elevated bilirubin levels is phototherapy to prevent complications.
Question 3
A 32-year-old female patient arrives to the emergency department with heavy uterine bleeding. The nurse finds that the patient had a positive pregnancy test 1 month prior to the visit. What is the potential medical management for this patient's issue?
A. Endometrial biopsy
B. Dilation and curettage
C. Colposcopy
D. Laparoscopy
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Dilation and curettage
The correct answer is B: Dilation and curettage. This procedure is indicated for heavy uterine bleeding in the setting of a positive pregnancy test to diagnose and treat conditions such as incomplete miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy. Dilation and curettage involves dilating the cervix and scraping the uterine lining to remove any remaining products of conception. It is important in this case to rule out any potential sources of bleeding that could be life-threatening.
A: Endometrial biopsy is not the appropriate initial management in this scenario as it is primarily used to assess endometrial pathology such as cancer.
C: Colposcopy is a procedure used to examine the cervix and vagina for abnormalities, not typically indicated for heavy uterine bleeding in the setting of a positive pregnancy test.
D: Laparoscopy is a minimally invasive surgical procedure used to view the abdominal organs, not typically indicated for uterine bleeding related to a positive pregnancy test.
Question 4
Following delivery of a newborn and placenta, you note that the mother has moderate vaginal bleeding. The mother is conscious and alert, and her vital signs are stable. Treatment for her should include:
A. carefully packing the vagina with sterile dressings.
B. massaging the uterus if signs of shock develop.
C. treating her for shock and providing rapid transport.
D. administering oxygen and massaging the uterus.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — administering oxygen and massaging the uterus.
Administering oxygen and massaging the uterus are appropriate interventions to manage postpartum bleeding. Oxygen helps support tissue perfusion, and uterine massage can aid in uterine contraction, controlling bleeding. These actions are indicated when the mother experiences moderate vaginal bleeding post-delivery, as described in the scenario. Careful monitoring for signs of shock should continue while these interventions are implemented to ensure the mother's condition remains stable. Choices A and B are incorrect because packing the vagina with sterile dressings is not recommended for postpartum bleeding unless it is severe and immediate action is needed, while massaging the uterus is a proactive approach and should not be delayed until signs of shock develop. Choice C is also incorrect as rapid transport is not the primary intervention in this scenario where the mother is conscious, alert, and stable, and the focus should be on immediate management of the bleeding.
Question 5
The nurse is reviewing a chart in the newborn nursery. An RN was ordered to take blood glucose (BG) recordings on a newborn delivered that morning. BG readings are as follows: 50 mg/dL at 7:00 a.m.; 57 mg/dL at 10:00 a.m.; 62 mg/dL at 12:00 p.m.; 67 mg/dL at 2:00 p.m.; and 68 at 4:00 p.m. What action should the nurse perform with these recordings?
A. Notify the physician immediately that the BG readings on this newborn are low.
B. Immediately give the newborn glucose water.
C. Confirm the readings with the laboratory.
D. Review orders for the timing of next BG reading.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Review orders for the timing of next BG reading.
The correct answer is D: Review orders for the timing of next BG reading. This is the correct action because the nurse should follow the protocol and guidelines set by the healthcare provider regarding the frequency and timing of blood glucose monitoring in newborns. By reviewing the orders, the nurse ensures that the newborn's blood glucose levels are monitored appropriately and at the right intervals. This helps in maintaining the newborn's health and identifying any potential issues promptly.
Other choices are incorrect:
A: Notify the physician immediately that the BG readings on this newborn are low - Premature action without assessing the situation or following protocol.
B: Immediately give the newborn glucose water - Inappropriate and potentially harmful intervention without proper evaluation.
C: Confirm the readings with the laboratory - Unnecessary step as the nurse can follow the established protocol without involving the laboratory unnecessarily.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.
Question 6
The nurse has access to the results of a karyotype sent out for their patient via an electronic medical record. The parents have accessed the results on their MyChart phone application and have asked the nurse what the results 45, X mean. What is the best response from the nurse?
A. The results indicate your child may have Turner syndrome.
B. Your results are 45, X; you will have to wait to talk with the geneticist.
C. Your results indicate that your daughter has a serious lifelong disease.
D. I’m not sure; I’ll call the provider.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: The results indicate your child may have Turner syndrome. This is the best response because 45, X is the karyotype typically associated with Turner syndrome, a genetic condition where a female is missing part or all of one X chromosome. This response shows the nurse's knowledge of genetics and ability to interpret karyotype results accurately.
Summary of incorrect choices:
B: Your results are 45, X; you will have to wait to talk with the geneticist - This response delays providing crucial information to the parents and does not address their immediate concerns.
C: Your results indicate that your daughter has a serious lifelong disease - This choice is too vague and alarming, lacking specificity about the condition associated with the karyotype results.
D: I’m not sure; I’ll call the provider - This response shows a lack of knowledge on the nurse's part and does not offer any immediate information or reassurance to the parents.
A postpartum client who delivered a healthy newborn is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding would indicate a complication during the early postpartum period?
A. Moderate lochia rubra
B. Bradycardia
C. Elevated blood pressure
D. Uterine contraction
Correct answer:
An elevated blood pressure in the postpartum period may indicate the onset of preeclampsia, a serious complication that requires immediate medical attention. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure, protein in the urine, and sometimes swelling in the hands and face. If left untreated, preeclampsia can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the baby. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare providers to closely monitor blood pressure levels in postpartum clients to promptly address any signs of preeclampsia. Choices A, B, and D are not indicative of a complication during the early postpartum period. Moderate lochia rubra is a normal finding as it indicates the normal discharge of blood and tissue from the uterus after childbirth. Bradycardia, a slow heart rate, is not typically a concern in the absence of other symptoms or signs of distress. Uterine contractions are essential for involution and are expected in the postpartum period.
The nurse is caring for a neonate born at 36 weeks, 2 days by primary cesarean birth and weighing 6 pounds, 4 ounces. The infant cried at delivery, had flexion in all extremities, had a heart rate of 135, had acrocyanosis in hands and feet, and was pale. The infant was placed skin-to-skin with the birthing person and has been latching and cuddling for the past 15 minutes. At 45 minutes, the neonate is found grunting and cool to the touch. What are the nurse's next steps?
A. Stimulate the neonate to take some deep breaths.
B. Ask the birthing person to wrap the baby in their blankets and cuddle them closer.
C. Take the neonate to the radiant warmer and check their temperature.
D. Call the NICU staff and activate the staff assist light in the birthing room.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Take the neonate to the radiant warmer and check their temperature. This is the appropriate next step because the neonate is showing signs of potential respiratory distress (grunting) and coolness to the touch, which could indicate hypothermia. Placing the neonate in the radiant warmer will help maintain a stable temperature and facilitate further assessment and intervention.
Choice A is incorrect because stimulating the neonate to take deep breaths may not address the underlying issue of potential respiratory distress.
Choice B is incorrect because simply wrapping the baby in blankets and cuddling them closer may not address the potential respiratory distress or hypothermia that the neonate is exhibiting.
Choice D is incorrect because calling the NICU staff and activating the staff assist light should be done after assessing the neonate's immediate needs, such as addressing potential respiratory distress and hypothermia.
Expectant parents ask a prenaNtal RnursIe eGducaBto.rC, “WMhich setting for childbirth limits the U S N T O amount of parent–infant interaction?†Which answer should the nurse provide for these parents in order to assist them in choosing an appropriate birth setting?
A. Birth center
B. Home birth
C. Traditional hospital birth
D. Labor, birth, and recovery room
Correct answer:
Rationale:
1. Traditional hospital birth setting often involves medical interventions that can limit parent-infant interaction, such as continuous fetal monitoring and medication administration.
2. These interventions may restrict movement and bonding opportunities between the parent and infant during labor and immediately after birth.
3. In contrast, birth center and home birth settings typically prioritize natural childbirth experiences with minimal interventions to encourage bonding and parent-infant interaction.
4. Labor, birth, and recovery room, while providing a more private setting than a traditional hospital, may still involve medical interventions that can impact parent-infant interaction.
Summary:
A: Birth center and B: Home birth promote parent-infant interaction. D: Labor, birth, and recovery room may still involve interventions. C: Traditional hospital birth setting often limits parent-infant interaction due to medical interventions.
Upon delivery of a baby's head, you see that the umbilical cord is wrapped around its neck. Initial treatment for this condition should include:
A. Clamping and cutting the umbilical cord.
B. Gently pulling on the cord to facilitate removal.
C. Trying to remove the cord from around the neck.
D. Keeping the cord moist and providing rapid transport.
Correct answer:
When encountering a situation where the umbilical cord is wrapped around a baby's neck upon delivery, the initial treatment should involve trying to remove the cord from around the neck gently. It is crucial to handle this situation delicately to avoid causing harm to the baby. Attempting to ease the cord over the baby's head without pulling or tightening can help prevent potential complications associated with cord compression. Choice A, clamping and cutting the umbilical cord, is not recommended as it can lead to abrupt deprivation of oxygen to the baby. Choice B, gently pulling on the cord, can worsen the situation by tightening the cord around the baby's neck. Choice D, keeping the cord moist and providing rapid transport, is not the immediate concern and does not address the potential risks of cord compression during delivery. Therefore, the priority is to carefully attempt to remove the cord from around the baby's neck to ensure a safe delivery.
What is the most likely cause of her pancreatitis?
A. Bile duct adenoma
B. Choledochal cyst
C. Neonatal sclerosing cholangitis
D. Sphincter of Oddi dysfunction
Correct answer:
A 2-year-old with acute abdominal pain and pancreatitis, with ultrasound showing a significantly dilated common bile duct tapering distally and dilated intrahepatic ducts, suggests a structural anomaly. Choledochal cyst (Choice B) is a congenital dilatation of the bile ducts, often presenting in young children with pancreatitis, jaundice, or abdominal pain due to bile stasis or obstruction. Bile duct adenoma (Choice A) is a benign tumor, rare in children, and typically asymptomatic unless obstructive, which doesn’t align with the ultrasound findings. Neonatal sclerosing cholangitis (Choice C) is a rare progressive disease usually presenting in infancy with cholestasis, not typically acute pancreatitis or this ultrasound pattern. Sphincter of Oddi dysfunction (Choice D) causes biliary or pancreatic obstruction in adults but is uncommon in children and lacks the structural ductal dilatation seen here. Thus, Choledochal cyst is the most likely cause.
Which patient may require more help and understanding when integrating the newborn into the family?
A. A primipara from an upper income family
B. A primipara who comes from a large family
C. A multipara (gravida 2) who has a supportive husband and mother
D. A multipara (gravida 6) who has two children younger than 3 years
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because a multipara with six pregnancies and two young children may require more help and understanding due to the potential challenges of caring for multiple young children simultaneously. The presence of two children younger than 3 years old indicates that the mother may be experiencing higher levels of stress and demands on her time and energy. This situation could lead to difficulties in integrating the newborn into the family dynamics.
Choice A is incorrect because being from an upper-income family does not necessarily indicate a need for more help and understanding. Choice B is incorrect because coming from a large family does not directly correlate with requiring more assistance when integrating a newborn. Choice C is incorrect because having a supportive husband and mother can provide valuable assistance and may not necessarily indicate a greater need for help compared to the scenario described in choice D.
The school nurse is presenting a class to a group of students about common overuse disorders. Which disorder would the school nurse include?
A. Dislocated radial head
B. Transient synovitis of the hip
C. Osgood-Schlatter disease
D. Scoliosis
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Osgood-Schlatter disease. This condition is a common overuse injury that affects the knee. Osgood-Schlatter disease typically occurs in children and adolescents who are involved in activities that require frequent running, jumping, and kicking. It is characterized by pain, swelling, and tenderness at the tibial tuberosity, where the patellar tendon inserts into the tibia.
Choice A, Dislocated radial head, is not an overuse disorder but rather a form of elbow injury where the head of the radius bone is displaced from its normal position.
Choice B, Transient synovitis of the hip, is a self-limiting condition that causes hip pain and limping in children. It is not typically considered an overuse disorder.
Choice D, Scoliosis, is a condition characterized by an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine. While it may be related to certain activities or postures, it is not primarily classified as an overuse disorder.
Which type of formula should not be diluted before being administered to an infant?
A. Powdered
B. Concentrated
C. Ready to use
D. Modified cow's milk
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Ready to use. Ready to use formula should not be diluted before being administered to an infant because it is already in the appropriate concentration for consumption. Diluting it further could result in the infant not receiving the necessary nutrients in the right proportions, potentially leading to nutritional deficiencies or other health issues.
Explanation of why other choices are incorrect:
A: Powdered formulas are designed to be mixed with water according to specific instructions provided by the manufacturer, so they should be diluted before administering to an infant.
B: Concentrated formulas are meant to be mixed with water before feeding to the infant, so they should be diluted as per the instructions.
D: Modified cow's milk should be diluted as it is not suitable for infants in its concentrated form and needs to be appropriately prepared according to guidelines provided by healthcare professionals.
In a case where a limb is protruding from a mother's vagina during active labor, how should this condition be managed?
A. Positioning the mother in a semi-Fowler's position, administering oxygen, and providing transport
B. Positioning the mother in a head-down position with her hips elevated, administering oxygen, and providing transport
C. Applying gentle traction to the protruding limb to remove pressure of the fetus from the umbilical cord
D. Giving the mother 100% oxygen and attempting to manipulate the protruding limb so that delivery can occur
Correct answer:
When a limb is protruding from the vagina during active labor, the appropriate management includes positioning the mother in a head-down position with her hips elevated. This position helps relieve pressure on the umbilical cord, reducing the risk of compromising fetal blood flow and oxygenation. Administering oxygen is essential to maintain oxygenation levels for both the mother and the fetus. Providing transport to a healthcare facility equipped to manage this obstetric emergency is crucial for ensuring a safe delivery.
Choice A is incorrect because a semi-Fowler's position does not effectively relieve pressure on the umbilical cord. Choice C is incorrect as applying traction to the protruding limb can lead to injury or complications for both the mother and the fetus. Choice D is incorrect because attempting to manipulate the limb without proper positioning and preparation can worsen the situation and increase risks during delivery.
LPN exams pediatrics practice questions, set 2 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
