You match developmental age, safety, and family teaching instead of treating the child as a small adult. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five pediatrics questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
During a routine monthly examination, a 5-month-old infant is brought to the pediatric clinic. What assessment finding should alert the nurse to notify the health care provider?
A. Temperature of 99.5°F
B. Blood pressure of 75/48 mm Hg
C. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute
D. Respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute
A respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute in a 5-month-old infant is considered high and may indicate respiratory distress. Infants normally have a higher respiratory rate than older children and adults, but a rate of 50 breaths per minute is above the expected range. This finding warrants immediate attention as it may be indicative of an underlying respiratory issue or distress.
Choice A (Temperature of 99.5°F) is within the normal range for body temperature and does not necessarily indicate a critical issue. Choice B (Blood pressure of 75/48 mm Hg) is not typically assessed in isolation for a 5-month-old infant during a routine examination, and the values provided are not indicative of a critical condition. Choice C (Heart rate of 100 beats per minute) is within the normal range for heart rate in infants and may not be a cause for immediate concern during a routine examination.
Question 2
A nurse is admitting a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and is experiencing mild vaginal bleeding due to placenta previa. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
A. Initiate continuous monitoring of the FHR.
B. Administer a dose of betamethasone.
C. Check the cervix for dilation every 8 hr.
D. Request that the provider prescribe misoprostol PRN.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Initiate continuous monitoring of the FHR.
In placenta previa, the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, which can lead to vaginal bleeding. Continuous monitoring of the fetal heart rate (FHR) is crucial in this situation to assess the well-being of the fetus. Any signs of distress or changes in the FHR can indicate potential complications, such as fetal hypoxia. This monitoring allows for prompt intervention if necessary to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby. Administering betamethasone may be indicated to promote fetal lung maturity in cases of anticipated preterm birth, but it is not the priority in this scenario where monitoring the fetal well-being is crucial. Checking the cervix for dilation every 8 hours is not necessary and may increase the risk of further bleeding. Misoprostol, a medication used to induce labor, is contraindicated in cases of placenta previa because it can cause further
Question 3
Your assessment of a 5-year-old child reveals that he is unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min and a heart rate of 50 beats/min. Treatment for this child should include:
A. high-flow oxygen via non-rebreathing mask and rapid transport.
B. assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device and rapid transport.
C. positive-pressure ventilation, chest compressions, and rapid transport.
D. back slaps and chest thrusts while attempting artificial ventilations.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — positive-pressure ventilation, chest compressions, and rapid transport.
In a 5-year-old child who is unresponsive with severe bradycardia and bradypnea, the priority is to provide positive-pressure ventilation to support breathing and perform chest compressions to support circulation. This child is in cardiac arrest, and the recommended treatment according to pediatric basic life support guidelines involves a combination of positive-pressure ventilation and chest compressions to maintain oxygenation and circulation. Rapid transport to a medical facility for further advanced care is crucial in this critical situation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because high-flow oxygen via non-rebreathing mask, assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device, and back slaps with chest thrusts are not sufficient in a cardiac arrest situation where the child requires immediate positive-pressure ventilation and chest compressions to maintain oxygenation and circulation.
Question 4
You are called to a residence for a "sick" 5-year-old child. When you arrive and begin your assessment, you note that the child is unconscious with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min and a heart rate of 50 beats/min. Management of this child should consist of
A. 100% oxygen via a non-rebreathing mask and rapid transport
B. positive pressure ventilations with a BVM device and rapid transport
C. chest compressions, artificial ventilations, and rapid transport
D. back blows and chest thrusts while attempting artificial ventilations
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — chest compressions, artificial ventilations, and rapid transport
In a pediatric patient with an unconscious state, a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min, and a heart rate of 50 beats/min, the appropriate management involves chest compressions, artificial ventilations, and rapid transport. These signs indicate severe respiratory and circulatory compromise, requiring immediate intervention to support breathing and circulation. Choice A (100% oxygen via a non-rebreathing mask) is not sufficient in this critical situation as the child requires more than just oxygen supplementation. Choice B (positive pressure ventilations with a BVM device) may be needed, but chest compressions are crucial in this scenario due to the presence of bradycardia. Choice D (back blows and chest thrusts) are not indicated for an unconscious child with respiratory and circulatory compromise; instead, immediate chest compressions are necessary to provide circulatory support.
Question 5
The nurse is aware that the community affects the health of its members. Which statements accurately reflect a community influence of health care? Select one that does not apply.
A. A community can be a contributor to a child's health or be the cause of his or her illnesses.
B. The child's health should be separated from the health of the surrounding community.
C. Community support and resources are necessary for children with significant problems.
D. The child's health cannot be totally separated from the health of the surrounding community.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — The child's health should be separated from the health of the surrounding community.
A community can be a contributor to a child's health or be the cause of his or her illnesses. Community support and resources are necessary for children with significant problems since a close working relationship between the child's healthcare provider and community agencies is an enormous benefit to the child. Children from communities suffering the large-scale breakdown of family relationships and loss of support systems will be at increased risk for depression, violence and abuse, substance abuse, and HIV infection. The child's health cannot be totally separated from the health of the surrounding community. Poverty has been linked to low birthweight and premature birth, among other health problems. Ideally the child's medical home is within the family's community to reduce barriers such as lack of transportation, expense of travel, and time away from the parents' workplace.
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Question 6
A newborn born 72 hours ago was diagnosed with jaundice, requiring phototherapy. Which is most important to educate the family on at this time?
A. Anticipatory guidance regarding immunization schedules.
B. Covering the newborn’s eyes during phototherapy.
C. Proper clothing for the newborn during seasonal changes
D. How to accurately measure the newborn’s temperature
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Covering the newborn’s eyes during phototherapy. This is important because exposure to the bright lights used in phototherapy can harm the newborn’s eyes. Covering the eyes with a protective mask or eye patches helps prevent damage.
Incorrect choices:
A: Anticipatory guidance regarding immunization schedules is important but not the most immediate concern in this scenario.
C: Proper clothing for the newborn during seasonal changes is important for general care but not as critical as protecting the eyes during phototherapy.
D: How to accurately measure the newborn’s temperature is essential but not as urgent as ensuring eye protection during phototherapy.
In summary, educating the family on covering the newborn’s eyes during phototherapy is crucial to prevent eye damage, making it the most important consideration in this situation.
A client is in labor, and a nurse observes late decelerations on the electronic fetal monitor. What should the nurse identify as the first action that the registered nurse should take?
A. Assist the client into the left-lateral position
B. Apply a fetal scalp electrode
C. Insert an IV catheter
D. Perform a vaginal exam
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Assist the client into the left-lateral position. This is the first action because it helps improve placental perfusion, which can alleviate late decelerations associated with uteroplacental insufficiency. The left-lateral position promotes optimal blood flow and oxygenation to the placenta by reducing pressure on the vena cava and improving maternal perfusion. This position can potentially prevent further fetal distress.
Summary of other choices:
B: Applying a fetal scalp electrode is not the first action for addressing late decelerations. It may be considered later for more precise monitoring.
C: Inserting an IV catheter is important but not the priority when late decelerations are observed.
D: Performing a vaginal exam is not indicated as the first action for addressing late decelerations and could potentially increase the risk of infection.
A parent brings an 18-month-old toddler to the clinic. The parent states, 'My child is so difficult to please, has temper tantrums, and annoys me by throwing food from the table.' What is the nurse's best response?
A. "Toddlers need discipline to prevent the development of antisocial behaviors."
B. "Toddlers are learning to assert independence, and this behavior is expected at this age."
C. "It is best to leave the toddler alone in the crib after calmly explaining why the behavior is unacceptable."
D. "This is the way a toddler expresses needs, and this behavior is acceptable during the initiative stage of development."
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: "Toddlers are learning to assert independence, and this behavior is expected at this age." At 18 months, toddlers are in the stage of developing autonomy and independence. They may exhibit behaviors like temper tantrums and defiance as they assert their independence and test limits. It is crucial for parents and caregivers to understand that these behaviors are typical for toddlers at this age. Choice A is incorrect because discipline should be age-appropriate and focus on positive reinforcement rather than preventing antisocial behaviors. Choice C is inappropriate as leaving a toddler alone in a crib after explaining unacceptable behavior is not a recommended approach and can lead to feelings of abandonment. Choice D is inaccurate as the described behavior is more related to asserting independence rather than the initiative stage of development.
Non-pharmacological techniques can help lower blood pressure. Which of the following is not considered one of these types of techniques?
A. Dietary changes
B. Multivitamins
C. Smoking cessation
D. Limiting caffeine
Correct answer:
Multivitamins are not typically considered a non-pharmacological technique for lowering blood pressure. While dietary changes, smoking cessation, and limiting caffeine intake can positively impact blood pressure levels, multivitamins are generally not specifically recommended as a primary intervention for this purpose. Dietary changes can include reducing salt intake and increasing potassium-rich foods, which are known to help manage blood pressure. Smoking cessation is crucial due to the negative impact of smoking on blood pressure and overall cardiovascular health. Limiting caffeine intake is advised as excessive caffeine consumption can lead to a temporary increase in blood pressure. Therefore, focusing on lifestyle modifications like healthy eating, smoking cessation, and caffeine reduction is more effective in managing blood pressure than relying on multivitamins.
The nurses in a NICU are concerned about the appropriate levels of oxygen therapy during the care of premature neonates. The nurses referenced an article by Newman (2014) titled, “Oxygen Saturation Limits and Evidence supporting the Targets.†On which evidence-based conclusion will the nurses develop guidelines?
A. Oxygen saturation limits of 85% to 89% are effective.
B. Oxygen saturation rates of 91% to 95% are effective.
C. Infants are within saturation limits about 75% of the time.
D. Oxygen saturation limits need to be between 87% to 94%.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Oxygen saturation rates of 91% to 95% are effective. This range is supported by the article by Newman (2014) as the optimal oxygen saturation levels for premature neonates. Here's the rationale:
1. The range of 91% to 95% falls within the typical target range for oxygen saturation in premature neonates, ensuring adequate oxygenation without the risk of hyperoxia or hypoxia.
2. Maintaining oxygen saturation within this range has been shown to improve outcomes and reduce the risk of complications in premature neonates.
3. The article by Newman likely provides evidence-based research supporting this specific range as the most effective for neonatal care.
In summary, choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the evidence-based optimal oxygen saturation range for premature neonates as supported by the referenced article.
A parent is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse regarding caring for their newborn after a circumcision. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A. Apply slight pressure with a sterile gauze pad for mild bleeding.
B. Inspect the circumcision site every 6 to 8 hours.
C. Avoid using baby wipes containing alcohol to cleanse the penis with each diaper change.
D. Clean the circumcision site daily using a warm, wet washcloth.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Apply slight pressure with a sterile gauze pad for mild bleeding. This instruction is crucial because it addresses the immediate post-circumcision care to control bleeding. Applying slight pressure with a sterile gauze pad helps to promote clotting and prevent excessive bleeding. This step is essential to ensure the newborn's safety and prevent complications.
Summary of other choices:
B: Inspecting the circumcision site every 6 to 8 hours is important, but not as critical as addressing bleeding promptly.
C: Avoiding baby wipes containing alcohol is a good practice to prevent irritation, but it is not the most urgent instruction for immediate care.
D: Cleaning the circumcision site daily using a warm, wet washcloth is generally recommended for routine care, but in the immediate post-circumcision period, controlling bleeding takes precedence.
The nurse is receiving shift report on her mother-baby couplet assignment. Which infant should the nurse evaluate first?
A. 38-weeks' gestation female newborn with a blood sugar level of 60 mg/dL
B. Term male newborn with a noted axillary temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
C. 40-weeks' gestation female newborn with reported poor feed at last attempt
D. 39-weeks' gestation male newborn who has been crying prior to initial bath
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C, to evaluate the 40-weeks' gestation female newborn with reported poor feed at the last attempt first. This choice should be prioritized as poor feeding in a newborn can be a sign of potential serious issues such as inadequate nutrition, dehydration, or underlying medical conditions. Addressing this concern promptly is crucial for the infant's well-being.
Option A can be considered as the blood sugar level of 60 mg/dL in the 38-weeks' gestation female newborn is slightly low, but it is not an immediate priority compared to poor feeding. Option B's axillary temperature of 37.2°C is within the normal range for a newborn, so it can be assessed after addressing the concern of poor feeding. Option D, a 39-weeks' gestation male newborn crying prior to the initial bath, can also be evaluated after addressing the more urgent issue of poor feed.
Which statement best explains why a newborn with a congenital defect of the penis should not be circumcised?
A. There is increased risk of infection.
B. The foreskin might be needed for future repairs.
C. A circumcision will make the defect more visible.
D. There is no medical rationale for a circumcision.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because in the case of a newborn with a congenital defect of the penis, the foreskin might be needed for future repairs to correct the defect. Removing the foreskin through circumcision could potentially limit surgical options and make it more challenging to address the underlying issue. It is essential to preserve as much tissue as possible to allow for optimal outcomes in any necessary corrective procedures. Choice A is incorrect as the risk of infection is not the primary reason for avoiding circumcision in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as the visibility of the defect is not a determining factor in the decision. Choice D is also incorrect as there can be a valid medical rationale for circumcision in other cases, but in this specific situation, preserving the foreskin for potential future repairs is the most important consideration.
During an assessment, a healthcare provider observes small pearly white nodules on the roof of a newborn's mouth. This finding is a characteristic of which of the following conditions?
A. Mongolian spots
B. Milia spots
C. Erythema toxicum
D. Epstein's pearls
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Epstein's pearls. These small pearly white nodules are commonly found on the roof of newborns' mouths and are considered a normal finding. They are formed from trapped epithelial cells during the development of the baby's mouth. They are harmless and typically resolve on their own without treatment.
A: Mongolian spots are bluish-black or bruise-like markings found on the skin, not in the mouth.
B: Milia spots are small, white, raised bumps on the skin, not found in the mouth.
C: Erythema toxicum is a common benign rash in newborns, not related to the mouth.
In summary, Epstein's pearls are the correct answer due to their specific location in the newborn's mouth, their appearance, and the fact that they are a normal finding in newborns. The other choices are incorrect as they describe different conditions not related to the oral cavity.
A newborn who was born at 38 weeks of gestation, weighs 3,200 g, and is in the 60th percentile for weight should be classified as which of the following?
A. Low birth weight
B. Appropriate for gestational age
C. Small for gestational age
D. Large for gestational age
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Appropriate for gestational age. A newborn is considered appropriate for gestational age when their weight falls within the 10th to 90th percentiles for their gestational age. In this case, the newborn is in the 60th percentile for weight, indicating that the weight is appropriate for the gestational age of 38 weeks.
Choice A: Low birth weight is incorrect because a newborn is classified as low birth weight when their weight is below 2,500 g regardless of gestational age.
Choice C: Small for gestational age is incorrect because a newborn is classified as small for gestational age when their weight is below the 10th percentile for their gestational age.
Choice D: Large for gestational age is incorrect because a newborn is classified as large for gestational age when their weight is above the 90th percentile for their gestational age.
LPN exams pediatrics practice questions, set 5 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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