LPN exams pediatrics practice questions

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LPN exams pediatrics practice questions

You match developmental age, safety, and family teaching instead of treating the child as a small adult. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.

Five pediatrics questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

You have a new patient consult in clinic this morning. The referral packet includes the newborn screen report, which is flagged abnormal hemoglobinopathy screen, F, A, Bart's, refer to hematology, and a complete blood count done at 4 years of age with a hemoglobin of 10 g/dL and an MCV of 68. The pediatrician has informed the parents the child has some form of alpha thalassemia. The older brother had the same newborn screen results but had a normal complete blood count when checked. The mother wants to know why her second child has an abnormal complete blood count when she and her husband do not have any blood problems. How would you respond to the child's mother?

  1. A. The mother and father are both silent carriers and each passed a deleted alpha globin allele to their child. The child inherited a trans-deletion genotype alpha thalassemia trait.
  2. B. The mother has cis deletion alpha thalassemia and the father has no alpha globin deletion, giving the child alpha thalassemia trait.
  3. C. Neither parent has an alpha globin deletion; this was a new spontaneous mutation causing alpha thalassemia in the child.
  4. D. Both parents carry cis deletions in the alpha globin gene cluster.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — The mother and father are both silent carriers and each passed a deleted alpha globin allele to their child. The child inherited a trans-deletion genotype alpha thalassemia trait.

Alpha globin deletions causing alpha thalassemia minor may be inherited in the cis (deletion on the same allele) or trans (deletion on both the maternal and paternal alleles). Option A is the correct answer because individuals with one deleted alpha globin are called silent carriers and will have no hematologic abnormalities on complete blood count. Hemoglobin Bart's is only detected at or near birth. If the offspring inherits both parental alleles with one missing alpha globin gene, the child will still inherit two functioning alpha globin, which is consistent with alpha thalassemia trait. Option B is incorrect because if the mother has a cis deletion, then she only has two functioning alpha globin, which would cause changes to her complete blood count, and she would have alpha thalassemia trait and not be a silent carrier. Option C is incorrect because the spontaneous loss of two alpha globin genes, one from each parental gamete, would be statistically unlikely, or the loss of two alpha globin on the same allele for one parental gamete. Option D is incorrect because (a) the parents would have abnormal blood counts, and (b) they have one child who had hemoglobin Bart's but now has a normal complete blood count.

Question 2

An otherwise healthy 18-year-old female is diagnosed with high-risk neuroblastoma after presenting with fatigue and bony pain. Imaging findings demonstrate a left adrenal mass with multiple osseous metastases. She successfully completes standard therapy for high-risk neuroblastoma, but experiences several episodes of disease recurrence and ultimately dies of her disease 10 years after her initial diagnosis. During her treatment, her tumor was sent for molecular analysis. Of the following, what molecular aberration was most likely to have been detected?

  1. A. ETV6-NTRK3 gene fusion
  2. B. PTPN11 mutation
  3. C. ATRX mutation
  4. D. MYCN amplification
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — ATRX mutation

Inactivating mutations in the ATRX chromatin remodeling gene are found in 14% of patients with high-risk neuroblastoma and in 44% of adolescent and adult patients with metastatic neuroblastoma. In addition to the association with older age at diagnosis, this mutation is associated with an indolent disease course and poor overall survival, as is seen in this patient's case. ETV6-NTRK3 gene fusions are characteristic of infantile fibrosarcoma and cellular congenital mesoblastic nephroma. Although NTRK aberrations can be seen in neuroblastoma, this specific fusion product is not. PTPN11 mutations are seen in neuroblastoma, particularly in patients with a germline mutation and phenotypic evidence of Noonan's syndrome. These mutations are also not associated with older age or an indolent disease course. WT1 mutations are not associated with neuroblastoma. MYCN amplification is incorrect because the incidence of MYCN amplification is low in older patients with neuroblastoma (approximately 3%), whereas the incidence of ATRX mutations is higher. Of note, ATRX mutations are mutually exclusive of MYCN amplification in neuroblastoma.

Question 3

A 3-year-old nonsyndromic, well-appearing male with no significant past medical history presents with an abdominal mass palpated by his mother when giving him a bath. CT imaging reveals a 9-cm right renal mass without involvement of the inferior vena cava (IVC) and no evidence of tumor thrombus by ultrasound. The left kidney appears normal, and there is no imaging evidence of tumor rupture or adherence to surrounding organs. There are diffuse, bilateral pulmonary metastases from which he is asymptomatic with a normal respiratory rate and no supplemental oxygen requirement. Following the National Wilms Tumor Study Group (NWTS)/Children's Oncology Group (COG) approach to pediatric renal tumors, which of the following are appropriate next steps?

  1. A. Core biopsy of the renal mass followed by three drug chemotherapy-vincristine, actinomycin, and doxorubicin
  2. B. Nephrectomy with lymph node sampling followed by chemotherapy based on histology and stage
  3. C. Fine-needle aspiration followed by three drug chemotherapy-vincristine, actinomycin, and doxorubicin
  4. D. Neoadjuvant three drug chemotherapy - vincristine, actinomycin and doxorubicin-followed by nephrectomy at week 6
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Nephrectomy with lymph node sampling followed by chemotherapy based on histology and stage

By age and presentation, this patient most likely has favorable-histology Wilms' tumor (FHWT) with pulmonary metastases; however, this can only be confirmed by histologic diagnosis. With this presentation, other pediatric renal tumors remain in the differential, including diffuse anaplastic Wilms' tumor, clear cell sarcoma of the kidney, or malignant rhabdoid tumor. The National Wilms Tumor Study Group (NWTS)/Children's Oncology Group (COG) recommends upfront nephrectomy over biopsy for all patients (except bilateral or bilaterally predisposed) when feasible. Although the patient has pulmonary metastases, and her disease is therefore designated as overall stage IV, the local stage (kidney) may still be stage I or II. There is no evidence of tumor thrombus (extending to above the level of the hepatic veins), and the tumor is below the size at which risk of intraoperative rupture is increased (12-14 cm). If the diagnosis of this patient is FHWT, with upfront nephrectomy, depending upon intraoperative findings and lymph node status, this patient may be spared flank radiation if stage I or II for nephrectomy.

Question 4

A nurse is working with an active labor patient who is in preterm labor and has been designated as high risk. The patient is very apprehensive and asks the nurse, “Is everything going to be all right?” The nurse replies, “Yes, everything will be okay.” Following delivery via an emergency cesarean birth, the newborn undergoes resuscitation and does not survive. The patient is distraught over the outcome and blames the nurse for telling her that everything would be okay. Which ethical principle did the nurse violate?

  1. A. Autonomy N R I G B.C M U S N T O
  2. B. Fidelity
  3. C. Beneficence
  4. D. Accountability
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Beneficence

The correct answer is C: Beneficence. The nurse violated the ethical principle of beneficence by providing false reassurance to the patient, which ultimately led to a negative outcome. Beneficence means to do good and act in the best interest of the patient. By giving false hope, the nurse failed to provide truthful information that could have prepared the patient for potential complications. A: Autonomy - This choice is not the correct answer because autonomy refers to respecting the patient's right to make their own decisions, which was not directly violated in this scenario. B: Fidelity - This choice is not the correct answer because fidelity refers to being faithful and keeping promises to the patient, which is not the primary issue in this case. D: Accountability - This choice is not the correct answer because accountability refers to taking responsibility for one's actions, which the nurse may need to do in this situation, but it is not the primary ethical principle violated. In summary, the nurse violated the ethical

Question 5

A new mother and father are inspecting their baby after the nurse brings the infant to them. The mother wants to know why her baby has bruises on the buttocks area. Which statement should be made by the nurse?

  1. A. Bruises are common after a traumatic delivery. I will ask the physician to come discuss the delivery.'
  2. B. These areas are called blue/gray macules and are common in certain ethnic groups, but will disappear around 3 years of age.'
  3. C. These are not bruises; these spots are birthmarks and are usually a permanent impairment.'
  4. D. The previous nurse did not report these findings. Who else has been in the room with the baby?'
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — These areas are called blue/gray macules and are common in certain ethnic groups, but will disappear around 3 years of age.'

The correct answer is B because blue/gray macules, also known as Mongolian spots, are common in certain ethnic groups, especially in babies with darker skin tones. These marks typically appear on the buttocks and lower back and usually fade away by around 3 years of age. This explanation reassures the parents that the marks are not bruises from trauma but rather a normal and harmless skin pigmentation variation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A: This statement implies a traumatic delivery, which may cause unnecessary worry for the parents. It also deflects responsibility by suggesting involving the physician without providing a clear explanation. C: This statement misidentifies the marks as birthmarks, which are different from Mongolian spots. It also incorrectly suggests they are a permanent impairment, causing unnecessary concern. D: This statement is confrontational and shifts the focus away from addressing the parents' concerns. It does not provide any explanation or reassurance about the baby's condition.

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Question 6

A 2-year-old girl has a diagnosis of overall stage IV favorable histology Wilms' tumor with pulmonary metastases and local stage III disease due to finding positive lymph nodes. After she completes 6 weeks of vincristine/dactinomycin/doxorubicin (DD4A) chemotherapy, restaging shows complete resolution of some but not all lung nodules. Tumor genetic testing reveals combined loss of heterozygosity for 1p and 16q. Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment plan?

  1. A. Continue chemotherapy with vincristine, doxorubicin, and dactinomycin to complete 25 weeks of therapy. Administer radiation to lungs and flank.
  2. B. Continue chemotherapy with vincristine, doxorubicin and dactinomycin to complete 25 weeks of therapy. Radiation to flank only. No lung radiation.
  3. C. Continue chemotherapy with vincristine, doxorubicin and dactinomycin, add cyclophosphamide and etoposide to complete 33 weeks of therapy. Radiation to flank only. No lung radiation.
  4. D. Continue chemotherapy with vincristine, doxorubicin and dactinomycin, add cyclophosphamide and etoposide to complete 33 weeks of therapy. Radiation to lungs and flank.
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Question 7

A nurse is entering information on the patient’s electronic health record (EHR) and is called to assist in an emergency situation with regard to another patient in the labor and birth suite. The nurse rushes to the scene to assist; however, she leaves the chart open on the computer screen. The emergent patient situation is resolved satisfactorily, and the nurse comes back to the computer entry screen to complete charting. At the end of the shift, the nurse manager asks to speak with the nurse and tells her that she is concerned with what happened today on the unit because there was a breach in confidentiality. Which response by the nurse indicates that she understands the nurse manager’s concerns?

  1. A. The nurse acknowledges that she should have made sure that her patient was safe before assisting with the emergency.
  2. B. The nurse states that she should have logged out of the EHR prior to attending to the emergency.
  3. C. The nurse indicates that the unit was understaffed.
  4. D. The nurse indicates that the she changed her password following the clinical emergency to maintain confidentiality.
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Question 8

Which of the following parameters would be LEAST reliable when assessing the perfusion status of a 2-year-old child with possible shock?

  1. A. distal capillary refill
  2. B. systolic blood pressure
  3. C. skin color and temperature
  4. D. presence of peripheral pulses
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Question 9

The nurse is preparing for the discharge of a premature neonate to home with the parents. The nurse explains the neonate must be able to pass the infant car seat challenge before discharge. For which reason would the neonate be considered unsafe in a car seat?

  1. A. Inability to remain at a 45-degree angle for a period of 1 hour
  2. B. Reluctance of parents to use the car seat because of the small size of the baby
  3. C. Inability to maintain adequate oxygenation, heart rate, and respiratory rate during trial
  4. D. Inability to continue prescribed oxygen therapy for the neonate while in a car seat
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Question 10

A client who is 6 hours postpartum and Rh-negative has an Rh-positive newborn. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the healthcare provider?

  1. A. It determines if kernicterus will occur in the newborn.
  2. B. It detects Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood.
  3. C. It detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood.
  4. D. It determines the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood.
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Question 11

The nurse is teaching a student nurse about some of the differences between a term and preterm infant. Which statement is most accurate?

  1. A. Infants born at 32 weeks gestational age have sufficient alveolar stability to maintain adequate lung expansion.
  2. B. Surfactant may need to be given to the infant born less than 34 to 36 weeks of age to assist with alveolar stability.
  3. C. Women with gestational diabetes have larger babies; therefore, there are fewer issues with lung maturity when born preterm.
  4. D. Mothers carrying multiples fetuses will increase the surfactant production naturally in utero.
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Question 12

How should the nurse prepare the sibling of a near-drowning accident victim who wants to see his brother in the pediatric intensive care unit, considering the child was present during the accident?

  1. A. Have the parents explain to the child why the sibling is so sick and inform the child that this could be the last time he sees his brother.
  2. B. Reassure the sibling not to cry in the child's room to avoid upsetting the ill child.
  3. C. If death is imminent, avoid informing the child about it and minimize involvement in care to protect the child from further trauma.
  4. D. Cover tubes and wires with a sheet, wash off any existing blood, and prepare him for what he will see.
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Question 13

Overstimulation may cause increased oxygen use in a preterm infant. Which nursing intervention helps to avoid this problem?

  1. A. Group all care activities together to provide long periods of rest.
  2. B. Keep charts on top of the incubator so the nurses can write on them ther
  3. C. While giving a report to the next nurse, stand in front of the incubator and talk softly about how the infant responds to stimulation.
  4. D. Teach the parents signs of overstimulation, such as turning the face away or stiffening and extending the extremities and fingers.
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Question 14

A nurse concludes that the parent of a newborn is not showing positive indications of parent-infant bonding. The parent appears very anxious and nervous when asked to bring the newborn to the other parent. Which of the following actions should the nurse use to promote parent-infant bonding?

  1. A. Hand the parent the newborn and suggest that they change the diaper.
  2. B. Ask the parent why they are so anxious and nervous.
  3. C. Tell the parent that they will grow accustomed to the newborn.
  4. D. Provide reinforcement about infant care when the parent is present.
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Question 15

A client is exhibiting tearfulness, insomnia, lack of appetite, and a feeling of letdown after childbirth. Which of the following conditions is associated with these manifestations?

  1. A. Postpartum fatigue
  2. B. Postpartum psychosis
  3. C. Letting-go phase
  4. D. Postpartum blues
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About these LPN exams pediatrics questions

LPN exams pediatrics practice questions for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.

The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

Keep going past these 15 questions

Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.