You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
The nurse is performing an assessment on a 21-year-old patient and notices that his nasal mucosa appears pale, gray, and swollen. What would be the most appropriate question to ask the patient?
A. "Are you aware of having any allergies?"
B. "Do you have an elevated temperature?"
C. "Have you had any symptoms of a cold?"
D. "Have you been having frequent nosebleeds?"
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — "Are you aware of having any allergies?"
The correct answer is A. Asking the patient if they are aware of having any allergies is the most appropriate question as the presentation of pale, gray, and swollen nasal mucosa could be indicative of an allergic reaction. By inquiring about allergies, the nurse can gather crucial information to potentially identify the cause of the nasal mucosa changes.
Choice B ("Do you have an elevated temperature?") is incorrect as the symptoms described are more specific to nasal mucosa changes rather than a systemic infection. Choice C ("Have you had any symptoms of a cold?") is incorrect as the symptoms do not necessarily align with a typical cold presentation. Choice D ("Have you been having frequent nosebleeds?") is incorrect as it does not directly address the current observation of pale, gray, and swollen nasal mucosa.
Question 2
What are the key interventions for managing a patient with asthma?
A. Administer bronchodilators and monitor oxygen levels
B. Encourage deep breathing exercises
C. Provide corticosteroids and monitor for respiratory distress
D. Provide antihistamines and monitor blood pressure
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Administer bronchodilators and monitor oxygen levels
The correct answer is A: Administer bronchodilators and monitor oxygen levels. Asthma management involves using bronchodilators to help open the airways and improve breathing. Monitoring oxygen levels is essential to ensure the patient is getting enough oxygen. Choice B, encouraging deep breathing exercises, can be helpful for some respiratory conditions but is not a key intervention for managing an acute asthma attack. Choice C, providing corticosteroids and monitoring for respiratory distress, is important for long-term asthma management and severe exacerbations but is not the immediate key intervention during an acute attack. Choice D, providing antihistamines and monitoring blood pressure, is not typically indicated for asthma management as asthma is primarily an airway disease, not a histamine-mediated condition.
Question 3
As nurses progress through their careers they face new challenges. Which attitude should a nurse take about leadership development?
A. It is an 'all or nothing' process.
B. It is not as important as other issues.
C. It is a lifelong process.
D. It is an extra skill if time allows.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — It is a lifelong process.
The correct answer is C: It is a lifelong process. Leadership development is essential for nurses to grow and adapt to changing healthcare environments. It is a continuous journey that requires ongoing learning and skill development. This attitude acknowledges the importance of leadership skills in providing quality patient care and advancing in one's career.
Now, let's analyze the other choices:
A: It is an 'all or nothing' process - This is incorrect because leadership development is not a one-time event but a continuous process.
B: It is not as important as other issues - This is incorrect as leadership skills are crucial for effective nursing practice.
D: It is an extra skill if time allows - This is incorrect because leadership development should be prioritized and integrated into a nurse's professional growth.
Question 4
A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to prevent complications?
A. Check the client's oxygen saturation every 2 hours
B. Provide humidified oxygen
C. Instruct the client to perform deep breathing exercises
D. Use an oxygen mask for delivery
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Provide humidified oxygen
The correct answer is B: Provide humidified oxygen. Providing humidified oxygen helps prevent dryness and irritation of the respiratory tract during oxygen therapy. This intervention is crucial in preventing complications such as mucous membrane dryness and potential damage to the airways. Checking the client's oxygen saturation every 2 hours (choice A) is essential for monitoring the client's response to therapy but does not directly prevent complications. Instructing the client to perform deep breathing exercises (choice C) is beneficial for respiratory function but does not directly address preventing complications related to oxygen therapy. Using an oxygen mask for delivery (choice D) is a common method of administering oxygen but does not specifically focus on preventing complications like dryness and irritation.
Question 5
What leadership style does the nurse manager demonstrate by shared decision-making with staff nurses?
A. Autocratic
B. Democratic
C. Laissez-faire
D. Situational
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Democratic
The correct answer is B: Democratic. Shared decision-making with staff nurses demonstrates a democratic leadership style, where the leader involves the team in decision-making processes. This fosters collaboration, empowerment, and autonomy among team members, leading to increased job satisfaction and productivity. Autocratic leadership (choice A) is characterized by a top-down approach with little input from team members. Laissez-faire leadership (choice C) is hands-off and lacks guidance or direction, which can lead to confusion and lack of accountability. Situational leadership (choice D) involves adapting leadership style based on the situation, which can include elements of both autocratic and democratic styles, but in this context, shared decision-making aligns more closely with a democratic leadership approach.
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Question 6
Lori, who is 32 years old, is taking clomiphene citrate to induce ovulation and presents to the office for a vaginal ultrasound. She mentions experiencing abdominal bloating, nausea, and weight gain of 5 pounds over the past 12 hours. What condition do these symptoms indicate?
A. Ovulation
B. Premenstrual syndrome
C. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
D. Failed ovulation induction
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS). OHSS is a potential complication of ovulation induction with medications like clomiphene citrate. The symptoms of abdominal bloating, nausea, and rapid weight gain indicate fluid accumulation in the abdominal cavity, a hallmark of OHSS. This occurs due to enlarged ovaries releasing excessive fluid into the abdomen. It is important to monitor patients like Lori closely for signs of OHSS to prevent severe complications.
Incorrect choices:
A: Ovulation - Symptoms described are not typical of normal ovulation.
B: Premenstrual syndrome - Symptoms are not consistent with typical PMS symptoms.
D: Failed ovulation induction - Symptoms of weight gain and bloating are not indicative of failed ovulation induction but rather a complication of the treatment.
After teaching a client who is prescribed a long-acting beta2 agonist medication, a nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement indicates that the client comprehends the teaching?
A. I will carry this medication with me at all times in case I need it.'
B. I will take this medication when I start to experience an asthma attack.'
C. I will take this medication every morning to help prevent an acute attack.'
D. I will be weaned off this medication when I no longer need it.'
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: "I will take this medication every morning to help prevent an acute attack."
Rationale:
1. Long-acting beta2 agonists are used for long-term control and prevention of asthma symptoms.
2. Taking the medication every morning ensures consistent protection against asthma attacks.
3. The statement shows understanding of the purpose of the medication as a preventive measure.
4. It aligns with best practice guidelines for using long-acting beta2 agonists regularly.
Summary:
A: Carrying medication at all times is not necessary for a long-acting medication meant for prevention.
B: Taking medication during an asthma attack indicates a misunderstanding of the medication's purpose.
D: Being weaned off the medication is not typically the goal for long-acting beta2 agonists used for prevention.
A patient asks why vitamin D is important for reproductive health. What is the nurse's response?
A. Vitamin D is only necessary during the third trimester of pregnancy.
B. It supports hormonal balance and may improve egg quality and implantation rates.
C. It prevents neural tube defects in early pregnancy.
D. Vitamin D eliminates the need for other prenatal vitamins.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: It supports hormonal balance and may improve egg quality and implantation rates. Vitamin D plays a crucial role in reproductive health by supporting hormonal balance, which is essential for the regulation of menstrual cycles and overall reproductive function. Additionally, adequate levels of vitamin D have been associated with improved egg quality and increased success rates of implantation during conception.
Incorrect choices:
A: Vitamin D is necessary throughout pregnancy, not just during the third trimester.
C: Prevention of neural tube defects is mainly linked to folic acid intake, not vitamin D.
D: Vitamin D is important for overall health, but it does not eliminate the need for other essential prenatal vitamins that provide a variety of nutrients necessary for a healthy pregnancy.
The PN notes that a UAP is ambulating a male client who had a stroke and has right-sided weakness. The UAP is walking on the client's left side. Which action should the PN take?
A. Instruct the UAP to walk on the client's affected side
B. Take over the ambulation and provide guidance to the UAP immediately
C. Provide the client with an assistive device, such as a cane or walker
D. Tell the UAP to take the client back to his room
Correct answer:
The correct action for the PN to take is to instruct the UAP to walk on the client's affected side. This is essential to provide the necessary support and prevent falls, especially when the client has weakness on one side due to a stroke. Walking on the affected side helps provide stability and assistance to the weaker side. Choice B is incorrect because it would be more appropriate for the PN to provide immediate guidance and correct the UAP's positioning rather than taking over the task completely. Choice C is incorrect because while assistive devices may be beneficial, the immediate concern is the UAP's positioning during ambulation, not providing the client with an assistive device. Choice D is incorrect as there is no indication to return the client to his room unless it is necessary for his safety or well-being.
A patient has blindness related to conversion (functional neurological) disorder but is unconcerned about this problem. Which understanding should guide the nurse's planning for this patient?
A. The patient is suppressing accurate feelings regarding the problem.
B. The patient's anxiety is relieved through the physical symptom.
C. The patient's optic nerve transmission has been impaired.
D. The patient will not disclose genuine fears.
Correct answer:
Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (B):
1. Conversion disorder involves physical symptoms without underlying medical cause.
2. The patient's blindness is related to conversion disorder, indicating a psychological origin.
3. Unconcerned attitude suggests relief from anxiety through the physical symptom.
4. Nurse should focus on addressing underlying anxiety to help alleviate the symptom.
5. By addressing anxiety, the patient may experience improvement in the physical symptom.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
A: Incorrect because suppression of accurate feelings is not the primary issue in conversion disorder.
C: Incorrect as the blindness is not due to physical impairment of the optic nerve.
D: Incorrect assumption as the patient's lack of concern does not imply non-disclosure of fears.
A nurse is instructing a group of nursing students about the responsibilities involved with organ donation and procurement. When the nurse explains that all clients waiting for a kidney transplant have to meet the same qualifications, the students should understand that this aspect of care delivery is an example of which ethical principle?
A. Fidelity
B. Autonomy
C. Justice
D. Non-maleficence
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Justice. Justice in healthcare ethics refers to fairness and equality in the distribution of resources and treatments. In this scenario, ensuring that all clients waiting for a kidney transplant meet the same qualifications demonstrates the ethical principle of justice by providing equal opportunities for all candidates. Choice A, fidelity, pertains to keeping promises and being faithful to agreements, which is not the primary ethical principle at play in this situation. Autonomy, choice B, relates to respecting a patient's right to make their own decisions, which is not directly applicable in the context of organ transplant qualifications. Non-maleficence, choice D, refers to the principle of doing no harm, which is important but not the primary ethical principle highlighted in this scenario.
On the third day after a partial thyroidectomy, Proserfina exhibits muscle twitching and hyperirritability of the nervous system. When questioned, the client reports numbness and tingling of the mouth and fingertips. Suspecting a lifethreatening electrolyte disturbance, the nurse notifies the surgeon immediately. Which electrolyte disturbance most commonly follows thyroid surgery?
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Correct answer:
Step 1: After thyroid surgery, there is a risk of damaging the parathyroid glands, leading to hypoparathyroidism.
Step 2: Hypoparathyroidism causes decreased secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH).
Step 3: Decreased PTH leads to decreased calcium reabsorption in the kidneys and increased phosphate levels.
Step 4: Low calcium levels cause muscle twitching, hyperirritability, and numbness/tingling.
Step 5: Therefore, the electrolyte disturbance most commonly following thyroid surgery is hypocalcemia, making choice A correct.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Hyponatremia is not typically associated with thyroid surgery.
C: Hyperkalemia is not a common electrolyte disturbance following thyroid surgery.
D: Hypermagnesemia is not commonly seen post-thyroid surgery and would not present with the described symptoms.
One way for a nursing assistant to be respectful to a resident in his room is to
A. Allow the resident to clean the room himself
B. Always knock and wait for permission before entering the room
C. Rearrange the resident's personal items so that they look better
D. Ignore any safety hazards in the room
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because it demonstrates respect for the resident's privacy and autonomy. By knocking and waiting for permission before entering the room, the nursing assistant acknowledges the resident's personal space and right to control who enters. This action promotes a sense of dignity and respect for the resident's boundaries.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect.
A: Allowing the resident to clean the room himself may not be respectful as it can be physically demanding and may not align with the resident's abilities or preferences.
C: Rearranging the resident's personal items without permission violates their privacy and autonomy, and may cause distress or confusion.
D: Ignoring safety hazards in the room goes against the duty of care and responsibility to ensure the resident's safety and well-being.
The most suitable vitamin D preparation for vitamin D dependent rickets is:
A. Calciferol
B. Cholecalciferol
C. Calcifediol
D. Calcitriol
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Calcitriol. Calcitriol is the active form of vitamin D and is the most suitable preparation for vitamin D dependent rickets as it directly increases calcium absorption in the intestines and promotes bone mineralization. Calcitriol is essential for regulating calcium and phosphorus levels in the body. Choice A, Calciferol, is a general term for vitamin D compounds and is not specific enough for rickets treatment. Choice B, Cholecalciferol, is the precursor form of vitamin D and needs to be converted to calcitriol in the body. Choice C, Calcifediol, is an intermediate form that also requires conversion to calcitriol for biological activity. Therefore, calcitriol is the most appropriate choice for treating vitamin D dependent rickets due to its direct action on calcium metabolism and bone health.
After Sam fathers five children, he and his wife decide that he should have a vasectomy, which is a cutting and removal of a small section of each vas deferens. Why will this cause Sam to be infertile?
A. It will become impossible for him to ejaculate during coitus.
B. The sperm will not be able to get from the epididymis to the urethra.
C. He will no longer produce sperm.
D. The seminal fluid will be too acidic for the sperm to survive.
Correct answer:
Step 1: Vasectomy involves cutting and removing a small section of each vas deferens, the tubes that carry sperm from the testicles to the urethra.
Step 2: By severing the vas deferens, sperm are physically blocked from reaching the urethra.
Step 3: Without the ability for sperm to travel through the vas deferens to the urethra, they cannot be ejaculated during coitus.
Step 4: Therefore, choice B is correct - the sperm will not be able to get from the epididymis to the urethra, causing infertility.
Summary:
Choice A is incorrect because ejaculation is the release of semen, not sperm. Choice C is incorrect as the testicles continue to produce sperm, but the sperm cannot reach the urethra. Choice D is incorrect as the acidity of seminal fluid does not affect the ability of sperm to travel through the vas deferens.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 97 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
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