You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Lori, who is 32 years old, is taking clomiphene citrate to induce ovulation and presents to the office for a vaginal ultrasound. As the nurse is walking Lori to ultrasound, Lori mentions that over the past 12 hours she has experienced abdominal bloating, nausea, and weight gain of 5 pounds. The nurse recognizes these signs and symptoms to be associated with what condition?
A. Ovulation
B. Premenstrual syndrome
C. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
D. Failed ovulation induction
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
The correct answer is C: Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS). OHSS is a potential complication of ovulation induction with medications like clomiphene citrate. The symptoms Lori is experiencing (abdominal bloating, nausea, and weight gain) are classic signs of moderate OHSS. The mechanism involves excessive response to the ovulation induction medication leading to enlarged ovaries and fluid accumulation in the abdomen. It is crucial to monitor patients on ovulation induction therapy for signs of OHSS to prevent severe complications.
Choice A: Ovulation - This is incorrect because the symptoms described are not typical of ovulation itself.
Choice B: Premenstrual syndrome - This is incorrect because the symptoms are not specific to premenstrual syndrome and are more indicative of a complication related to medication.
Choice D: Failed ovulation induction - This is incorrect because the symptoms suggest a response to the medication rather than a failure of ovulation.
Question 2
A nurse manager wants his nursing unit to be a place where all nurses want to work, where patient satisfaction is high, and care is innovative and interdisciplinary. Staff are encouraged to chair taskforces to improve quality of care and he counsels staff in areas of measuring patient outcomes. Other managers want to mimic this manager's approach to improve their own units. This nurse is which type of leader?
A. Authoritative
B. Transactional
C. Laissez-faire
D. Transformational
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Transformational
The correct answer is D: Transformational. This type of leader inspires and motivates followers to achieve higher levels of performance by fostering a positive work environment, encouraging innovation, and supporting personal growth. In this scenario, the nurse manager empowers staff, promotes interdisciplinary teamwork, and focuses on improving patient outcomes through quality initiatives. This aligns with the characteristics of a transformational leader.
A: Authoritative leaders typically make decisions without input from others and focus on control, which is not demonstrated by the nurse manager in the scenario.
B: Transactional leaders use rewards and punishments to motivate employees based on performance, which is not the primary focus of the nurse manager in the scenario.
C: Laissez-faire leaders are hands-off and provide little guidance or direction, which is not consistent with the nurse manager's active involvement in improving care quality and patient outcomes.
Question 3
The nurse is assessing a patient's respiratory status and notes that the patient is using their neck muscles to breathe. What is the most likely cause of this finding?
A. Severe respiratory distress.
B. Hyperventilation.
C. Pneumothorax.
D. Acute bronchitis.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Severe respiratory distress.
The correct answer is A: Severe respiratory distress. When a patient is using their neck muscles to breathe, it indicates that they are struggling to breathe effectively. This is a sign of increased work of breathing, which is commonly seen in severe respiratory distress. The neck muscles are recruited as accessory muscles to help with breathing when the respiratory system is compromised. This finding can be seen in conditions such as severe asthma, acute respiratory failure, or severe pneumonia. Therefore, the most likely cause of a patient using their neck muscles to breathe is severe respiratory distress.
Summary:
- Choice B (Hyperventilation): Hyperventilation is characterized by rapid and deep breathing, not necessarily the use of neck muscles to breathe.
- Choice C (Pneumothorax): Pneumothorax typically presents with chest pain and shortness of breath, but not specifically with the use of neck muscles to breathe.
- Choice D (Acute bronchitis): Acute bronchitis
Question 4
The nurse notes darker skin pigmentation in the skinfolds of a middle-aged patient who has a body mass index of 40 kg/m2. What is the nurse’s appropriate action?
A. Discuss the use of drying agents to minimize infection risk.
B. Instruct the patient about the use of mild soap to clean skinfolds.
C. Teach the patient about treating fungal infections in the skinfolds.
D. Ask the patient about a personal or family history of type 2 diabetes.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Ask the patient about a personal or family history of type 2 diabetes.
The correct answer is D: Ask the patient about a personal or family history of type 2 diabetes. This is important because individuals with darker skin pigmentation and obesity are at higher risk for developing type 2 diabetes. By inquiring about the patient's personal or family history of type 2 diabetes, the nurse can gather important information to assess the patient's risk factors and potentially intervene early.
Summary of other choices:
A: Discussing the use of drying agents to minimize infection risk may not address the underlying health concern related to darker skin pigmentation and obesity.
B: Instructing the patient about the use of mild soap to clean skinfolds is important for hygiene but does not address the potential risk of type 2 diabetes.
C: Teaching the patient about treating fungal infections in the skinfolds may be relevant if there is a current infection but does not address the broader health implications of darker skin pigmentation and obesity.
Question 5
The nurse in the emergency department tells the daughter of a patient that her 86-year-old mother has had a stroke. The daughter tearfully asks the nurse, 'Who will take care of me now?' When the nurse explores this query, the daughter mentions that her mother always tells her what job to take, what clothes to buy and wear, and what to have for lunch. The daughter states that she needs someone to direct her and reassure her when she gets anxious. With which personality disorder is this presentation most consistent?
A. Histrionic
B. Dependent
C. Narcissistic
D. Borderline
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Dependent
The correct answer is B: Dependent. This presentation is most consistent with dependent personality disorder because the daughter is displaying excessive need for someone to take care of her and make decisions for her, as well as seeking reassurance and guidance when anxious. Individuals with dependent personality disorder often lack self-confidence and rely heavily on others for emotional and physical needs.
Choice A: Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by attention-seeking behavior and excessive emotions, which do not match the daughter's presentation.
Choice C: Narcissistic personality disorder involves a grandiose sense of self-importance and a lack of empathy for others, which is not evident in the daughter's behavior.
Choice D: Borderline personality disorder is characterized by unstable relationships, self-image, and emotions, as well as impulsive behaviors, which are not reflected in the daughter's need for constant direction and reassurance.
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Question 6
Which of the following are examples of characteristics of evidence-based practice? Select all that apply.
A. It is a problem-solving approach.
B. It uses the best evidence available.
C. It is generally accepted in clinical practice.
D. It is based on current institutional protocols.
Correct answer:
Step-by-step rationale for why option A is correct:
1. Evidence-based practice is a problem-solving approach as it involves identifying, critically evaluating, and applying the best available evidence to make informed decisions.
2. By using a systematic problem-solving approach, practitioners can integrate research evidence, clinical expertise, and patient values to deliver optimal care.
3. This approach helps healthcare professionals make decisions based on the most current and relevant evidence, leading to improved patient outcomes.
4. Options B, C, and D are incorrect:
- Option B: While evidence-based practice uses the best evidence available, it is not the only defining characteristic.
- Option C: Acceptance in clinical practice may vary, as evidence-based practice requires critical appraisal of evidence rather than blind acceptance.
- Option D: Evidence-based practice is not solely based on institutional protocols but on a broader range of evidence sources.
A 45-year-old married woman who works full time in a factory has recently been absent for 3-day periods on several occasions. Each time, she returned to work wearing dark glasses. Facial and body bruises were apparent. Her supervisor became suspicious that she was a victim of battering and referred her to the occupational health nurse. What should the nurse first focus on as she meets the patient?
A. Notifying the police of the abuse
B. Documenting the woman's injuries
C. Establishing trust and building rapport
D. Collecting evidence to prosecute the abuser
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Establishing trust and building rapport. The nurse should first focus on building a trusting relationship with the patient to create a safe environment for her to disclose any abuse she may be experiencing. By establishing trust and rapport, the nurse can gain the patient's confidence and encourage her to open up about her situation. This approach is crucial in ensuring the patient feels supported and empowered to seek help.
Incorrect choices:
A: Notifying the police of the abuse - This may jeopardize the patient's safety and could worsen the situation if she is not ready to involve law enforcement.
B: Documenting the woman's injuries - While documenting injuries is important, it should not be the first step as it may further distress the patient without addressing the underlying issue.
D: Collecting evidence to prosecute the abuser - Prosecution should not be the initial focus; the priority should be on the patient's well-being and safety.
Employee health test results reveal a tuberculosis (TB) skin test of 16-mm induration and a negative chest x-ray for a staff nurse working on the pulmonary unit. The nurse has no symptoms of TB. Which information should the occupational health nurse plan to teach the staff nurse?
A. Use and side effects of isoniazid
B. Standard four-drug therapy for TB
C. Need for annual repeat TB skin testing
D. Reasons for annual sputum cytology testing
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Standard four-drug therapy for TB. In this scenario, the nurse has a positive TB skin test but no symptoms or chest x-ray findings. This suggests latent TB infection. The standard treatment for latent TB infection is a four-drug therapy regimen to prevent the progression to active TB. It is essential for the occupational health nurse to educate the staff nurse about this treatment to prevent the development of active TB disease.
Choice A (Use and side effects of isoniazid) is incorrect because while isoniazid is part of the treatment regimen for latent TB infection, the nurse needs to be educated about the full four-drug therapy regimen, not just one drug.
Choice C (Need for annual repeat TB skin testing) is incorrect as the positive TB skin test already indicates latent TB infection, so repeat skin testing annually is not necessary.
Choice D (Reasons for annual sputum cytology testing) is incorrect because sputum cytology testing is not
A nurse is caring for a client who has avoidant personality disorder. Which of the following types of therapy should the nurse anticipate that the client's problems arise from issues of role definition and grief and will frame solutions in interpersonal terms. This therapy is useful for those with avoidant personality disorder who seek the approval of others and fear rejection.
A. Antipsychotic medications
B. Dialectical behavior therapy
C. Antidepressant medications
D. Interpersonal therapy
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Interpersonal therapy. This therapy focuses on addressing issues related to interpersonal relationships and communication. For clients with avoidant personality disorder who fear rejection and seek approval, interpersonal therapy helps them navigate their difficulties in forming and maintaining relationships. It also addresses issues of role definition and grief, which are common challenges for individuals with this disorder.
Antipsychotic medications (A) are typically used to treat psychotic disorders, not personality disorders like avoidant personality disorder. Dialectical behavior therapy (B) is more commonly used for borderline personality disorder, not avoidant personality disorder. Antidepressant medications (C) may be prescribed for individuals with avoidant personality disorder who also have comorbid depression, but they do not specifically target the interpersonal issues and fear of rejection that are core features of this disorder.
Which is the top priority for nurses during the perioperative period?
A. Patient teaching
B. Patient diagnostic testing
C. Patient safety
D. Patient care documentation
Correct answer:
Patient safety is the top priority for nurses during the perioperative period because it encompasses the prevention of harm and ensures the patient's well-being throughout the surgical process. While patient teaching, diagnostic testing, and documentation are important aspects of care, they are secondary to maintaining a safe environment. Safety includes preventing infections, ensuring proper identification, and avoiding errors such as wrong-site surgery. The Surgical Care Improvement Project (SCIP) and Joint Commission standards emphasize safety as the foundation of perioperative nursing, making it the nurse's primary focus. For example, marking the operative site and verifying patient identity are critical safety measures that take precedence over teaching or documentation, which can be addressed once safety is assured. This prioritization aligns with the nursing principle of 'do no harm,' ensuring the patient's physical and emotional security during a vulnerable time.
The Affordable Care Act (ACA) is a complex law that has multiple provisions. The ACA was passed by congress and signed into law on March 23, 2010. Which of the following is a major provision that is focused on reshaping the healthcare sector?
A. A reform in payment methodologies including bundled payments, medical homes, and accountable care organizations
B. Reducing Medicare spending by establishing penalties for readmission rates, reducing payments, incentivizing quality improvements, and establishing an advisory review board
C. Expanding insurance coverage by way of regulations, subsidies, and encouraging state and federal insurance marketplaces
D. All of the above
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: All of the above. The ACA is a comprehensive law that includes multiple provisions aimed at reshaping the healthcare sector.
A: A reform in payment methodologies such as bundled payments, medical homes, and accountable care organizations is a major provision of the ACA. These payment reforms aim to incentivize providers to deliver high-quality care efficiently.
B: Reducing Medicare spending through penalties for readmission rates, payment reductions, quality improvement incentives, and the establishment of an advisory review board is another key provision. This helps control costs and improve the quality of care.
C: Expanding insurance coverage through regulations, subsidies, and the creation of insurance marketplaces is also a major focus of the ACA. This provision aims to increase access to healthcare for millions of Americans.
Therefore, all of the choices are major provisions of the ACA focused on reshaping the healthcare sector.
Which primary prevention strategy will the nurse include in a community program on the prevention of hepatitis C?
A. Advising individuals with risky sexual behaviors to be screened for hepatitis C
B. Stressing that handwashing is important after changing diapers or using the bathroom
C. Recommending immunizations against the other viral hepatitis infections
D. Instructing individuals to avoid sharing needles, syringes, or other equipment contaminated with blood
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because sharing needles or other equipment contaminated with blood is a significant risk factor for contracting hepatitis C. By instructing individuals to avoid sharing such equipment, the nurse is targeting a key mode of transmission for the virus. This primary prevention strategy directly addresses the root cause of hepatitis C transmission in high-risk populations.
Choice A is incorrect because while screening for hepatitis C is important, it is not a primary prevention strategy. Choice B is incorrect as handwashing is essential for preventing the spread of infections like hepatitis A and E, not hepatitis C. Choice C is incorrect because immunizations against other viral hepatitis infections do not protect against hepatitis C specifically.
In summary, advising individuals to avoid sharing needles or equipment contaminated with blood is the most effective primary prevention strategy for hepatitis C compared to the other choices provided.
A city has announced its plans to build a city dump near a community of poor and predominantly African-American citizens. Which of the following principles would the nurse be using when vocalizing opposition for this plan?
A. Environmental justice
B. Environmental epidemiology
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Risk communication
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Environmental justice. Environmental justice is the principle that all individuals, regardless of race or socioeconomic status, have the right to equal protection from environmental risks. In this scenario, the nurse would oppose the city dump near a poor and predominantly African-American community because it violates the principle of environmental justice by disproportionately exposing this community to environmental hazards.
Summary of incorrect choices:
B: Environmental epidemiology focuses on studying the distribution and determinants of diseases in populations, not on environmental justice principles.
C: Tertiary prevention involves managing and treating complications of existing diseases, not related to opposing unjust environmental decisions.
D: Risk communication involves effectively communicating risks and hazards to the public, which is not directly related to opposing unjust environmental actions based on principles of justice.
Under which of the following conditions should a nursing assistant not take an oral temperature on a person?
A. The person has influenza.
B. The person almost certainly has a fever.
C. The person is over six years old.
D. The person is confused or disoriented.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because taking an oral temperature on a person who is confused or disoriented could lead to inaccurate results. A person who is confused may not be able to cooperate or keep the thermometer in their mouth properly, affecting the reading. It is crucial to ensure the person is alert and able to follow instructions for an accurate oral temperature.
Choice A (The person has influenza): This is not a valid reason to avoid taking an oral temperature as having influenza does not necessarily impact the accuracy of the reading.
Choice B (The person almost certainly has a fever): While the person likely has a fever, it does not directly affect the process of taking an oral temperature if the person is alert and can follow instructions.
Choice C (The person is over six years old): Age alone does not determine whether a person should not have their oral temperature taken. It is the person's ability to cooperate and follow instructions that matters.
You are on scene at a motor vehicle accident, and your 20-year-old patient is entrapped. He is unconscious, unresponsive, and has a palpable carotid pulse that is weak and thready. His breathing is slow and shallow at four times a minute with equal chest wall expansion. There are no obvious deformity injuries or hemorrhage noted. Fire department on-scene has stabilized the vehicle and provided you and your partner a relatively safe environment to manage the entrapped patient. However, access is limited to the seated patient, and extrication is expected to take another twenty minutes. After having your partner maintain cervical spine stabilization, which of the following would be the best choice for securing the patient's airway?
A. Insert a nasal airway and administer high-flow oxygen therapy
B. Use nasotracheal intubation techniques to gain complete control of the patient's airway and assist ventilation
C. Intubate the patient using the blind orotracheal intubation technique to maintain in-line mobilization of the spine, then assist ventilation
D. Insert a King LTD and begin assisting ventilations with a bag-valve mask
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Intubate the patient using the blind orotracheal intubation technique to maintain in-line mobilization of the spine, then assist ventilation. In this scenario, the patient is entrapped with limited access and expected extrication time of 20 minutes. Given the patient's unconsciousness, unresponsiveness, weak carotid pulse, and slow, shallow breathing, securing the airway is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation. Intubating the patient using the blind orotracheal technique allows for maintaining in-line mobilization of the spine, reducing the risk of further spinal injury during the extrication process. This approach provides a more definitive airway management compared to nasal airway insertion or bag-valve mask ventilation. Nasotracheal intubation (choice B) may not be feasible due to limited access and potential for further injury. Using a King LTD (choice D) is not recommended in this situation as it does not provide the same
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 20 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.
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Keep going past these 15 questions
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