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LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 91

LPN exams · fundamentals

LPN exams fundamentals practice questions set 91

You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.

Five fundamentals questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of tuberculosis (TB). What is the priority teaching point for the patient?

  1. A. Adherence to the full course of prescribed medications.
  2. B. Avoiding contact with family members during treatment.
  3. C. Completing follow-up skin tests every six months.
  4. D. Using a surgical mask when going outdoors.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Adherence to the full course of prescribed medications.

The correct answer is A: Adherence to the full course of prescribed medications. This is the priority teaching point because adherence to the full course of TB medications is crucial to ensure complete eradication of the bacteria and prevent the development of drug-resistant strains. Skipping doses or stopping treatment prematurely can lead to treatment failure and the spread of TB. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding contact with family members during treatment is not necessary as TB is not spread through casual contact. Choice C is incorrect as completing follow-up skin tests every six months is not the priority teaching point, although it may be part of the follow-up care plan. Choice D is incorrect as using a surgical mask when going outdoors is not necessary unless the patient is actively coughing and symptomatic.

Question 2

When performing a physical assessment, the first technique the nurse will always use is:

  1. A. Palpation.
  2. B. Inspection.
  3. C. Percussion.
  4. D. Auscultation.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Inspection.

The correct answer is B: Inspection. When performing a physical assessment, inspection is always the first technique used as it provides an overall view of the patient's appearance and any obvious abnormalities. This includes observing skin color, posture, gait, facial expressions, and any visible signs of distress. Inspection helps the nurse gather initial information before proceeding to palpation, percussion, and auscultation. Palpation (A) involves using touch to assess areas such as texture, temperature, and tenderness. Percussion (C) is tapping on the body to produce sounds that indicate the location, size, and density of underlying structures. Auscultation (D) is listening to sounds produced by the body using a stethoscope. These techniques are important in a comprehensive physical assessment but come after inspection.

Question 3

A client with antisocial personality disorder yells, 'Shut up about that, or I'll punch you in the nose!' and shakes his fist at another client in a group meeting after the client speaks negatively of illicit drug use. The nurse quickly determines that the client is at risk to act violently against others as evidenced by his aggressive behavior, verbal threats, and a history of impulsivity. Which is the best approach for the nurse to use?

  1. A. Seclude the client to protect the other clients and staff.
  2. B. Put the client in restraints to protect the milieu.
  3. C. Explore alternate ways to handle frustrating topics in the group.
  4. D. Tell the client to leave the group until he can behave appropriately.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Explore alternate ways to handle frustrating topics in the group.

The correct answer is C: Explore alternate ways to handle frustrating topics in the group. This approach focuses on addressing the underlying issue of the client's aggressive behavior by finding healthier ways to manage emotions and conflicts. It promotes therapeutic communication and helps the client develop coping strategies. Secluding the client (choice A) may escalate the situation and reinforce negative behavior. Putting the client in restraints (choice B) is a physical intervention that should only be used as a last resort for safety reasons. Telling the client to leave the group (choice D) may not address the root cause of the behavior and could lead to further isolation and resentment. Ultimately, exploring alternate ways to handle frustrating topics is the most therapeutic and effective approach in this scenario.

Question 4

Mr. Johnston is very confused. He likes to have a cigarette after lunch. You should:

  1. A. Take him to the smoking room
  2. B. Supervise his smoking
  3. C. Respect right to smoke any time he wants
  4. D. Tell him he cannot smoke
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Supervise his smoking

Mr. Johnston's confusion indicates a cognitive impairment, which increases the risk of unsafe behaviors, such as mishandling a cigarette, potentially leading to burns or fire hazards. As a PSW, ensuring his safety is paramount while respecting his autonomy to the extent possible. Taking him to the smoking room is a step but does not guarantee oversight. Respecting his right to smoke anytime overlooks the need for supervision given his condition. Telling him he cannot smoke dismisses his preferences entirely, which could upset him and violate his rights unnecessarily. Supervising his smoking strikes the best balance: it allows him to engage in his desired activity while ensuring a PSW is present to monitor for safety, aligning with care standards that prioritize both resident autonomy and protection in long-term care settings.

Question 5

What is the primary function of the seminiferous tubules in males?

  1. A. Produce seminal fluid
  2. B. Mature sperm
  3. C. Produce sperm
  4. D. Secrete testosterone
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Produce sperm

The primary function of the seminiferous tubules in males is to produce sperm. Sperm production, known as spermatogenesis, occurs within the seminiferous tubules through a series of cell divisions and maturation processes. This process is essential for male fertility and reproduction. Therefore, choice C is correct. Choice A (Produce seminal fluid) is incorrect because seminal fluid is primarily produced by the seminal vesicles and prostate gland. Choice B (Mature sperm) is partially correct but not the primary function of the seminiferous tubules. While sperm maturation does occur in the epididymis, the main role of the seminiferous tubules is sperm production. Choice D (Secrete testosterone) is incorrect because testosterone is primarily produced by the Leydig cells in the testes, not in the seminiferous tubules.

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Question 6

A 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents with a complaint of shortness of breath on exertion and swelling in his legs. His physical examination reveals bilateral pedal edema, crackles at the lung bases, and jugular venous distention. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
  2. B. Congestive heart failure
  3. C. Pulmonary embolism
  4. D. Renal failure
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Question 7

The public health nurse is studying the proportion of the population in a certain county that had pneumonia during the winter months. Which epidemiological measure will the nurse use?

  1. A. Attack rate
  2. B. Incidence rate
  3. C. Prevalence rate
  4. D. Risk ratio
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Question 8

A patient is experiencing a possible neurological emergency from a blunt force closed head injury. He is found to have abnormal pupillary reactions to light and has lost the ability to move his eyes from side to side to follow your finger movements. He is also unable to identify the number of fingers you are holding up. He reports he is able to see the fingers but is not able to focus enough to identify how many fingers are present. Which of the following cranial nerves should you suspect may be involved in his injury?

  1. A. Cranial nerves I, V, and VI
  2. B. Cranial nerves V and VII
  3. C. Cranial nerves IX and X
  4. D. Cranial nerves II, III, and IV
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Question 9

Stacy is discharged from the hospital following her chemotherapy treatments. Which statement of Stacy's mother indicated that she understands when she will contact the physician?

  1. A. "I should contact the physician if Stacy has difficulty in sleeping".
  2. B. "I will call my doctor if Stacy has persistent vomiting and diarrhea".
  3. C. "My physician should be called if Stacy is irritable and unhappy".
  4. D. "Should Stacy have continued hair loss, I need to call the doctor".
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Question 10

A nurse is planning to host a health screening at a large urban mall. Which of the following variables will help the nurse determine which screenings should be included? (Select all that apply.)

  1. A. Adequate space for persons to lie down after testing until side effects are reduced
  2. B. Health problems for which the specific population is at risk
  3. C. Whether adequate privacy can be obtained for the invasive or embarrassing procedures
  4. D. Whether health care providers are available to follow up on any positive screening results
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Question 11

To implement nursing care interventions the nurse must be competent in three areas which are:

  1. A. Leadership, autonomy and skills
  2. B. Experience, advanced education and skills
  3. C. Skills, leadership and finances
  4. D. Knowledge, function and specific skills
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Question 12

Which client should the on-duty nurse assess first?

  1. A. The 58-year-old client with heart failure blood pressure of 126/76 mm Hg and a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute.
  2. B. The 89-year-old client with end-stage right-sided heart failure blood pressure of 78/50 mm Hg and a “do not resuscitate” order.
  3. C. The 62-year-old client with thrombophlebitis receiving I.V. heparin.
  4. D. The 75-year-old client with new-onset atrial fibrillation receiving I.V. diltiazem (Cardizem).
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Question 13

During auscultation of the anterior chest wall of a client newly admitted to a medical-surgical unit, what type of breath sounds should a nurse expect to hear?

  1. A. Normal breath sounds
  2. B. Adventitious breath sounds
  3. C. Absent breath sounds
  4. D. Diminished breath sounds
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Question 14

During a neurological assessment, the nurse observes that the patient has difficulty walking on their toes. What condition is most likely associated with this finding?

  1. A. Cerebellar ataxia.
  2. B. Peripheral neuropathy.
  3. C. Parkinson's disease.
  4. D. Stroke.
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Question 15

When a nursing assistant is serving meals to residents she must always:

  1. A. Prepare a diet card for each resident
  2. B. Identify the resident
  3. C. Prepare the meal for each resident
  4. D. Prepare a diet plan for each resident
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About these LPN exams fundamentals questions

LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 91 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

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