You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client with COPD. When teaching the client about breathing exercises, what should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. Lie supine to facilitate air entry
B. Avoid pursed lip breathing
C. Use diaphragmatic breathing
D. Use chest breathing
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Use diaphragmatic breathing
For a COPD client, diaphragmatic breathing is a key exercise to include in discharge teaching, retraining the patient to use the diaphragm over accessory muscles. This technique inhaling to expand the abdomen, exhaling to contract it reduces respiratory rate, enhances alveolar ventilation, and eases dyspnea by countering the shallow, rapid breathing typical in COPD's hyperinflated state. Lying supine restricts diaphragm movement, worsening air trapping. Pursed-lip breathing, far from avoided, slows expiration, preventing airway collapse a complementary skill. Chest breathing relies on upper thorax muscles, inefficient in COPD. The nurse's teaching on diaphragmatic breathing demonstrated with hand placement (e.g., on abdomen) improves oxygenation and energy efficiency, vital for home management, per respiratory therapy evidence.
Question 2
The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with obstructive sleep apnea. Which statement by the client indicates correct understanding?
A. I should sleep on my back to keep my airway open.
B. Using my CPAP device will help reduce daytime sleepiness.
C. I can stop using my CPAP once my symptoms improve.
D. Sleeping fewer hours each night will improve my symptoms.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Using my CPAP device will help reduce daytime sleepiness.
The correct answer is B: Using my CPAP device will help reduce daytime sleepiness. This statement shows understanding that continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) therapy is essential in managing obstructive sleep apnea and reducing daytime sleepiness. CPAP helps keep the airway open during sleep, improving oxygen levels and quality of sleep. It is a standard treatment for sleep apnea.
Summary of incorrect choices:
A: Sleeping on the back can actually worsen obstructive sleep apnea by causing the tongue to fall back and obstruct the airway.
C: Stopping CPAP therapy abruptly can lead to symptoms returning or worsening. It is typically a lifelong therapy for most individuals with sleep apnea.
D: Sleeping fewer hours will not improve sleep apnea symptoms; in fact, it can exacerbate daytime sleepiness and other symptoms.
Question 3
The nurse is completing a health history with an older adult client who reveals smoking one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 50 years. Which illness prevention strategy should the nurse recommend?
A. Referral to a smoking cessation program
B. Screening for lung cancer
C. Referral to a nutritionist
D. Mobility exercises
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Referral to a smoking cessation program
For an older adult with a 50-year, pack-a-day smoking history, the nurse prioritizes illness prevention via a smoking cessation program referral primary prevention to halt further damage from a modifiable risk tied to lung cancer, COPD, and heart disease. Quitting slashes these risks studies show even late cessation improves lung function. Screening for lung cancer is secondary, detecting issues, not preventing them, though relevant later. Nutrition or mobility exercises enhance wellness but don't address smoking's root threat 20% of smokers develop COPD. Cessation directly targets the habit, aligning with nursing's preventive ethos, offering practical support like group therapy or nicotine aids. This strategy empowers the client to alter a decades-long risk, maximizing health gains despite age, a cornerstone of tailored care.
Question 4
Appropriate statements concerning radiology and trauma interventional radiology include:
A. To rule out injury of the cervical spine in the unconscious patient, application of a protocol involving a computed tomography (CT) scan to the neck is recommended.
B. A FAST (Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma) scan is a specific investigation for assessment of intraperitoneal bleeding.
C. In a patient who is persistently hypotensive in the emergency department despite adequate fluid resuscitation, radiological interventions to treat bleeding caused by a pelvic fracture are not recommended.
D. Interventional radiology has a role in the management of injuries to the liver, kidney and spleen.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — To rule out injury of the cervical spine in the unconscious patient, application of a protocol involving a computed tomography (CT) scan to the neck is recommended.
Trauma radiology optimizes diagnosis and intervention. CT is the gold standard for cervical spine assessment in unconscious patients, per NICE guidelines, offering high sensitivity for fractures/ligamentous injury versus plain films. FAST scans detect free fluid (e.g., blood) intraperitoneally but lack specificity positive findings need confirmation (e.g., CT). Persistent hypotension with pelvic fracture warrants interventional radiology (e.g., embolization), not dismissal contrary to the statement. Interventional radiology manages solid organ injuries (liver, kidney, spleen) via embolization, reducing surgical need. Staffing in radiology matches theatre for critical cases. CT's diagnostic precision in cervical spine trauma ensures timely, accurate management, critical in unconscious patients where clinical exam is unreliable.
Question 5
The RN is instructing the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) regarding the care of a male client with a diagnosis of COPD. What is the highest priority nursing action to share with the UAP?
A. Encourage the client to ambulate as much as possible.
B. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 45 degrees.
C. Never leave the client alone when he is out of bed.
D. Offer to help the client with activities of daily living.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Keep the head of the bed elevated to 45 degrees.
The correct answer is B: Keep the head of the bed elevated to 45 degrees. This is the highest priority action because it helps improve ventilation and oxygenation in clients with COPD by reducing the work of breathing. Elevating the head of the bed promotes optimal lung expansion and decreases the risk of respiratory distress.
Choice A: Encouraging ambulation is important for overall health; however, maintaining proper positioning for respiratory function takes precedence in COPD clients.
Choice C: While it is important to monitor and assist clients for safety reasons, maintaining proper positioning for respiratory function is more critical in this scenario.
Choice D: While assisting with activities of daily living is essential, maintaining proper positioning for respiratory function is crucial in managing COPD symptoms.
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Question 6
If public health nurse is teaching a new nurse about STDs and how to break the chain of transmission. Which statement by the new nurse demonstrates understanding about breaking the chain of transmission?
A. Stress the importance of safe sex
B. There is no way to break the chain
C. will make certain that all person that are infected will receive treatment
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Stress the importance of safe sex. This answer demonstrates understanding because promoting safe sex practices can help prevent the spread of STDs by breaking the chain of transmission. Safe sex practices such as using condoms can reduce the risk of transmitting STDs. Emphasizing the importance of safe sex educates individuals on how to protect themselves and others from infection.
Choice B is incorrect because there are ways to break the chain of transmission, such as practicing safe sex and getting tested regularly. Choice C is incorrect because treating infected individuals alone does not prevent the spread of STDs to others. It is important to focus on prevention as well. Choice D is incomplete, but without additional information, it does not directly address breaking the chain of transmission.
The nurse caring for a patient in crisis shows signs of a problematic nurse-patient relationship by doing which of the following?
A. Offering to change the time of the counselling session for the second time in 3 weeks
B. Experiencing frustration about the decisions the patient is making
C. Giving the patient permission to call him or her at home when the patient 'needs to talk'
D. Suggesting that the patient attend an extra counselling session each month
Correct answer:
Allowing a patient to call a nurse at home blurs professional boundaries, a key sign of a problematic nurse-patient relationship. This action risks over-involvement, dependency, or burnout, undermining therapeutic objectivity. Changing session times shows flexibility, not dysfunction, unless excessive. Frustration with patient decisions is human and manageable through supervision, not inherently problematic. Suggesting extra sessions is a proactive care strategy, not a boundary issue. In nursing, maintaining clear limits is critical during crises, where patients may seek excessive reassurance. Permitting home calls compromises this, potentially escalating the patient's reliance and the nurse's emotional burden, making it the clearest indicator of an unhealthy dynamic requiring correction to ensure effective, professional care.
Which of the following is an example of professional and ethical behavior by a nursing assistant?
A. Keeping quiet if he makes a mistake
B. Documenting care accurately and promptly
C. Telling his friend details about the residents he works with
D. Rushing a resident through tasks if there is not much time left in the nursing assistant's shift
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because documenting care accurately and promptly is an essential part of professional and ethical behavior for a nursing assistant. It ensures continuity of care, accountability, and patient safety. By documenting accurately, the nursing assistant provides crucial information for the healthcare team.
Choice A is incorrect because keeping quiet about a mistake can lead to potential harm to the patient and goes against ethical principles of honesty and transparency.
Choice C is incorrect because sharing details about residents violates patient confidentiality, a fundamental ethical principle in healthcare.
Choice D is incorrect because rushing a resident through tasks compromises the quality of care and can jeopardize patient safety, which is not aligned with professional and ethical behavior.
A 19-yr-old patient calls the school clinic and tells the nurse, “My menstrual period is very heavy this time. I have to change my tampon every 4 hours.†Which action should the nurse take next?
A. Tell the patient that her flow is not unusually heavy.
B. Schedule the patient for an appointment later that day.
C. Ask the patient how heavy her usual menstrual flow is.
D. Have the patient call again if the heavy flow continues.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Ask the patient how heavy her usual menstrual flow is. This is the best course of action as it allows the nurse to gather more information about the patient's menstrual history and determine if the current heavy flow is a deviation from her normal pattern. By obtaining information on the patient's usual menstrual flow, the nurse can assess if the current situation warrants further evaluation or if it falls within the range of normal variability.
Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the patient's concern without further assessment may lead to missing a potential issue. Choice B is not the best immediate action as it does not prioritize gathering more information first. Choice D is also not the optimal choice as it does not address the need for more information to assess the situation accurately.
Two nurses are discussing the rights of hospitalized psychiatric clients. Which of the following statements is an error?
A. Confidentiality allows for the disclosure of information under specific circumstances.
B. If a committed client is also found to be incompetent, he loses his rights under the Patient's Bill of Rights.
C. Privileged communication does not apply to medical records, and they can be used in court.
D. Clients can never be held against their will.
Correct answer:
Being committed and/or incompetent does not negate the Patient's Bill of Rights. However, if a guardian is appointed, the client loses the right to enter into legal contracts or agreements that require a signature. Confidentiality does allow for the disclosure of information under specific circumstances such as to another health-care provider who has a need to know or if the client specifically consents that information be shared with persons of his or her choice and also the duty to warn if the client threatens to harm others. Privileged communication relates to the privacy of what was discussed during therapy sessions and this can be documented in medical records. Clients may be held against their will if they are committed to a facility for psychiatric care until they no longer pose a danger to themselves or to anyone else.
Sir Michael Marmot brought the challenging message that "inequality is killing on a grand scale" and that it is the role of governments, and physicians, to address the causes of health inequities. This statement closely relates to which of the five criteria of the Canada Health Act:
A. Advocacy
B. Universality
C. Equality
D. Feasibility
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Equality. Sir Michael Marmot's message highlights the impact of inequality on health outcomes, emphasizing the importance of addressing health inequities. The criterion of Equality in the Canada Health Act focuses on ensuring that all individuals have equal access to healthcare services regardless of their socio-economic status. Marmot's call for action aligns with the principle of Equality as it underscores the need to address the root causes of health disparities and promote fairness in healthcare delivery. Advocacy (A) involves supporting the healthcare system, Universality (B) ensures all residents have access to healthcare, and Feasibility (D) pertains to the practicality of healthcare services, but they are not directly related to the message conveyed by Marmot about addressing health inequities.
Which statement indicates the nurse's understanding of conduct disorder related to a client's situation?
A. Childhood-onset conduct disorder is more severe than the adolescent-onset type, and these individuals likely develop antisocial personality disorder in adulthood.
B. Childhood-onset conduct disorder is caused by a difficult temperament, and the child is likely to outgrow these behaviors by adulthood.
C. Childhood-onset conduct disorder is diagnosed only when behaviors emerge before the age of 5 years; therefore, improvement is likely.
D. Childhood-onset conduct disorder has no treatment or cure, and children diagnosed with this disorder are likely to develop progressive ODD.
Correct answer:
Step 1: Childhood-onset conduct disorder is more severe than adolescent-onset type due to early onset of disruptive behaviors impacting development.
Step 2: Individuals with childhood-onset conduct disorder are at higher risk for developing antisocial personality disorder in adulthood due to long-standing behavioral patterns.
Step 3: Understanding this progression helps nurses anticipate future challenges and tailor interventions.
Summary of other choices:
B: Incorrect - Childhood-onset conduct disorder is persistent and unlikely to outgrow without appropriate intervention.
C: Incorrect - Diagnosis is not limited to behaviors before age 5, and improvement may require comprehensive treatment.
D: Incorrect - Childhood-onset conduct disorder can be treated with various interventions, and not all individuals progress to ODD.
If a resident with AD is incontinent the NA should
A. Withhold fluids.
B. Dim the bathroom lights.
C. Mark the bathroom with a sign or picture.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Mark the bathroom with a sign or picture. This is important because individuals with Alzheimer's disease may have difficulty recognizing familiar surroundings, leading to confusion and accidents. By marking the bathroom with a sign or picture, the resident can easily identify the location and purpose of the room, reducing the likelihood of accidents.
A: Withholding fluids is not appropriate as it can lead to dehydration and other health issues.
B: Dimming the bathroom lights may further confuse the resident and increase the risk of accidents.
D: The answer choice is incomplete, so it cannot be evaluated for correctness.
In summary, marking the bathroom with a sign or picture is the best choice as it helps the resident with Alzheimer's disease navigate the environment safely and independently.
Which factor is most relevant to the administration of lidocaine I.V. to a male client?
A. Decrease in arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) when measured with a pulse oximeter.
B. Increase in systemic blood pressure.
C. Presence of premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) on a cardiac monitor.
D. Increase in intracranial pressure (ICP).
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Presence of premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) on a cardiac monitor. Lidocaine is commonly used to treat PVCs as it is a Class 1B antiarrhythmic agent that stabilizes cell membranes in the heart, reducing the automaticity of ectopic pacemaker cells. PVCs can be a precursor to more serious arrhythmias, so addressing them promptly is crucial.
A: Decrease in arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) when measured with a pulse oximeter - Not directly related to the administration of lidocaine.
B: Increase in systemic blood pressure - Lidocaine typically has minimal effects on systemic blood pressure, and this is not a primary consideration when administering it.
D: Increase in intracranial pressure (ICP) - Lidocaine is not commonly associated with increasing ICP, so this is not a primary concern.
The nurse is assessing a patient's pupillary response and observes that both pupils constrict when light is directed into one eye. What does this finding indicate?
A. Direct light reflex.
B. Consensual light reflex.
C. Accommodation.
D. Convergence.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Consensual light reflex. When both pupils constrict in response to light directed into one eye, it indicates a consensual light reflex. This response occurs due to the connection between the optic nerves, causing both pupils to constrict simultaneously. This reflex is an involuntary response and ensures that both eyes react to changes in light intensity equally.
Choice A (Direct light reflex) refers to the constriction of the pupil in response to light directly shining into that same eye, not both eyes simultaneously.
Choice C (Accommodation) involves the adjustment of the lens to focus on near objects and is not related to pupillary response.
Choice D (Convergence) refers to the inward movement of both eyes when focusing on a nearby object and is not related to pupillary response to light.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 90 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
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