LPN exams fundamentals practice questions set 92

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The correct answer is C because securing straps around the client's knees, ankles, and hands on an arm board is crucial for maintaining the client's safety during surgery. This helps prevent inadvertent movements that could lead to injury or interference with the surgical procedure. Straps made of strong, non-abrasive materials ensure comfort and proper positioning. A: The surgeon greeting the client before anesthesia induction is not directly related to maintaining the client's safety during surgery. B: The coordination between the surgeon and anesthesiologist is important but does not directly address the client's safety during the intraoperative phase. D: While monitoring by the assistant anesthesiologist is important, it is the responsibility of the circulating nurse to ensure physical safety measures are in place.

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The correct answer is B because the ACA allowed states to expand Medicaid eligibility with federal funding. This is correct as the ACA provided financial incentives for states to expand Medicaid coverage to individuals with incomes up to 138% of the federal poverty level. This increased federal funding helped states cover the costs of expanding their Medicaid programs. Choice A is incorrect because the ACA did not fully fund Medicaid for all income levels; it provided funding for expansion up to a certain income threshold. Choice C is incorrect as the ACA did not eliminate Medicaid entirely; it aimed to expand Medicaid coverage to more low-income individuals. Choice D is incorrect because Medicaid expansion was indeed a key component of the ACA, aimed at increasing access to healthcare for low-income individuals.

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The correct answer is B: Food allergies and likes and dislikes. A diet card typically includes important dietary information such as food allergies to prevent adverse reactions, and likes and dislikes to ensure patient satisfaction. This information is crucial for healthcare providers to provide appropriate meals and avoid potential health risks. Incorrect Choices: A: Infection prevention procedures - This information is usually found in infection control manuals or guidelines, not on a diet card. C: Care team members' names - This information is typically included in a patient's care plan or chart, not on a diet card. D: Advance directives - Advance directives refer to a patient's preferences for medical treatment in case they are unable to communicate, and are not related to dietary information found on a diet card.

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Nursing's code of ethics, like the ANA's, defines principles autonomy, beneficence, justice, nonmaleficence guiding how nurses deliver care. It shapes professional conduct, ensuring respect for patient rights, dignity, and needs (e.g., informed consent). Improving self-health care applies to nurses personally but isn't the code's focus, which prioritizes clients. Ensuring identical care misinterprets ethics; it promotes fairness, not uniformity, as care varies by patient. Protecting clients from harm is an outcome of ethical practice (nonmaleficence), but the code's broader purpose is defining care principles, not just safety. These principles provide a moral framework, enabling nurses to navigate complex decisions, uphold trust, and maintain professionalism, making this the most comprehensive description of the code's role.

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The correct answer is C. To test for the presence of ballottement, the nurse should initiate a gentle upward tap on the cervix. Ballottement is a technique used in obstetrics to assess for the presence of a floating object in the uterus, such as a fetus. By tapping the cervix gently, the nurse can feel for a rebound effect, indicating the presence of a floating object. This technique helps to confirm the presence of a fetus in the uterus. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: Palpating the uterus for contractions is not relevant to testing for ballottement. B: Assessing the skin for increased pigmentation is not related to assessing for the presence of a floating object in the uterus. D: Palpating the abdomen for fetal outline does not specifically test for ballottement, which involves tapping the cervix.

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The correct answer is B: Securing attachments to the operating table with foam padding. This action helps distribute pressure evenly, reducing the risk of skin breakdown. Foam padding acts as a protective barrier between the patient's skin and the operating table, minimizing friction and pressure points. This intervention promotes skin integrity by preventing tissue ischemia and damage. Incorrect options: A: Encouraging the patient to bathe before surgery may not directly impact skin breakdown during the intraoperative phase. C: Periodically adjusting the patient during surgery may disrupt the surgical procedure and increase the risk of complications. D: Measuring the time a patient is in one position during surgery is important but does not actively prevent skin breakdown; it is more about monitoring than prevention.

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Preoperative assessment aims to establish the patient's baseline of normal function vital signs, labs, and health history to anticipate and prevent postoperative complications like infection or respiratory failure. This baseline guides anesthesia dosing and surgical planning, ensuring deviations (e.g., hypoxia) are quickly recognized. Planning postoperative care, educating the patient and family, and gathering equipment are critical but follow this initial step they're interventions, not the assessment's primary purpose. By documenting norms like respiratory rate or cardiac status, the nurse sets a reference for intraoperative and postoperative monitoring, reducing risks tied to individual variability. This foundational data collection aligns with safety protocols, enabling tailored care throughout the perioperative process.

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The correct answer is B. A 19-year-old with a fever of 103.8°F who is confused and unable to orient to place and time likely has a severe infection or a serious medical condition affecting the central nervous system. This client needs immediate attention as altered mental status combined with a high fever can indicate a life-threatening situation. Choices A, C, and D present important conditions that require medical care, but they are not as urgent as the 19-year-old with a high fever and confusion. The 12-year-old with a laceration may require treatment for bleeding and a tetanus shot, the 49-year-old with a compound fracture needs urgent orthopedic intervention, and the 65-year-old with a high blood sugar is concerning for hyperglycemia but can wait momentarily compared to the client with a fever and altered mental status.

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The correct answer is D: Flu-like symptoms. In the beginning stages of HIV infection, individuals often experience flu-like symptoms such as fever, fatigue, sore throat, swollen lymph nodes, and muscle aches. This is known as acute HIV infection. These flu-like symptoms typically appear within 2-4 weeks after exposure to the virus. It is important to note that not everyone with HIV will experience these symptoms, and they can be easily mistaken for other viral infections. Incorrect Choices: A: Poor circulation - Poor circulation is not a specific sign of HIV infection. B: Damage to the eyes - Damage to the eyes is not a common early sign of HIV infection. C: Open sores on the penis - While open sores can be a sign of some sexually transmitted infections, they are not specific to HIV infection in the beginning stages.

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The correct answer is B: Ask for an international normalized ratio (INR). Rationale: 1. Anticoagulants can affect blood clotting, so monitoring the patient's INR level is crucial to assess their clotting ability. 2. INR measures the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy and helps determine if the patient's blood is clotting appropriately. 3. This information is essential for determining the patient's risk of bleeding during surgery. Summary of Other Choices: A: Asking for a radiological examination of the chest is not directly related to the patient's anticoagulant therapy and surgical preparation. C: Asking for a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) test is not relevant to monitoring the effects of anticoagulants. D: Asking for a serum sodium (Na) test is not necessary for monitoring anticoagulant therapy in this context.