LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 101
LPN exams · fundamentals
LPN exams fundamentals practice questionsset 101
You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A client who received multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse's decision to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medication?
A. Increased urinary clearance of the multiple medications has led to diuresis and lowered the blood pressure.
B. The antagonistic interaction among the various blood pressure medications has reduced their effectiveness.
C. The additive effect of multiple medications has caused the blood pressure to drop too low.
D. The synergistic effect of the multiple medications has resulted in drug toxicity and resulting hypotension.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — The additive effect of multiple medications has caused the blood pressure to drop too low.
The correct answer is C. When a client experiences syncope due to a significant drop in blood pressure after receiving multiple antihypertensive medications, the additive effect of these medications can cause the blood pressure to drop excessively. This additive effect can lead to hypotension, which is why the nurse decided to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medication. Choices A, B, and D provide incorrect rationales. Choice A mentions diuresis, which is not directly related to the drop in blood pressure due to additive medication effects. Choice B refers to an antagonistic interaction reducing effectiveness, which is not applicable in this scenario. Choice D talks about a synergistic effect leading to drug toxicity, which is not the cause of the sudden drop in blood pressure observed in the client.
Question 2
A hospital is seeking a 2.5% wage reduction for all nurses as part of a new balanced budget plan; however, the plan provides for raises for upper-level management. This plan resulted in a call for a union to protect the nurses. When the union representative arrives, what questions should the nurses ask? (Select one that does not apply.)
A. Will the dues be used to support charity care when clients are unable to pay?
B. How effective has the union been in representing nurses' best interest?
C. What percent of dues pays union personnel salaries?
D. If arbitration is unsuccessful and a strike occurs, will nurses receive compensation during the strike?
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Will the dues be used to support charity care when clients are unable to pay?
The correct answer is A because the question of whether dues will be used to support charity care is not directly relevant to the concerns of the nurses in this scenario. The nurses should focus on questions related to their wages, benefits, and working conditions.
Option B is relevant as the nurses should inquire about the union's track record in representing their best interests. Option C is also important as knowing what percentage of dues goes towards union personnel salaries can help assess the union's transparency and efficiency. Option D is crucial as it directly impacts the nurses' financial security during a potential strike.
In summary, the nurses should prioritize questions related to union representation, dues allocation, and strike compensation, making option A the least relevant in this context.
Question 3
According to developmental theory, to be a successful leader in which stage must the nurse successfully accomplish tasks?
A. Older adult
B. Adolescent
C. Middle-age
D. Young adulthood
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Young adulthood
In developmental theory, young adulthood is the stage where individuals typically focus on establishing their careers, relationships, and personal identity. Successful leadership requires qualities such as independence, decision-making skills, and the ability to take initiative, which are commonly developed during young adulthood. Therefore, to be a successful leader, a nurse must successfully accomplish tasks during this stage.
Summary:
A: Older adult - Typically focused on reflection and generativity, not ideal for developing leadership skills.
B: Adolescent - Characterized by identity exploration and role confusion, lacking the necessary maturity for leadership roles.
C: Middle-age - Often focused on career stability and family responsibilities, but not necessarily the prime stage for leadership development.
Question 4
A colostomy is scheduled to be done on a patient who has severe Crohn's disease. What is the correct classification for this surgery?
A. Palliative
B. Minor
C. Restorative
D. Curative
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Restorative
A colostomy for severe Crohn's disease is classified as restorative surgery because it aims to restore gastrointestinal function by bypassing inflamed areas, improving the patient's ability to manage the chronic condition. Palliative surgery focuses on symptom relief without addressing function, which doesn't fully capture the colostomy's purpose. Minor surgery underestimates the procedure's complexity and impact. Curative surgery eliminates disease, but Crohn's is incurable, making this inaccurate. The rationale centers on the restorative goal: the colostomy diverts stool to allow healing and maintain nutrition, enhancing quality of life in a chronic illness. This distinguishes it from curative (disease-ending) or palliative (comfort-focused) surgeries, aligning with nursing's emphasis on functional improvement.
Question 5
A 16-year-old high school junior is brought to your clinic by his father. The teenager was taught in his health class at school to do monthly testicular self-examinations. Yesterday when he felt his left testicle it was enlarged and tender. He isn't sure if he has had burning with urination and he says he has never had sexual intercourse. He has had a sore throat, cough, and runny nose for the last 3 days. His past medical history is significant for a tonsillectomy as a small child. His father has high blood pressure and his mother is healthy. On examination you see a teenager in no acute distress. His temperature is 100.8 and his blood pressure and pulse are unremarkable. On visualization of his penis, he is uncircumcised and has no lesions or discharge. His scrotum is red and tense on the left and normal appearing on the right. Palpating his left testicle reveals a mildly sore swollen testicle. The right testicle is unremarkable. An examining finger is put through both inguinal rings, and there are no bulges with bearing down. His prostate examination is unremarkable. Urine analysis is also unremarkable. What abnormality of the testes does this teenager most likely have?
A. Acute orchitis
B. Acute epididymitis
C. Torsion of the spermatic cord
D. Prostatitis
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Acute orchitis
The correct answer is A: Acute orchitis. Orchitis is inflammation of the testicle, commonly caused by a viral infection (e.g., mumps) or a bacterial infection. In this case, the teenager presents with a swollen, tender left testicle, redness, and fever. The history of recent upper respiratory symptoms suggests a viral cause. Epididymitis (choice B) typically presents with pain in the scrotum and inflammation of the epididymis. Torsion of the spermatic cord (choice C) is a surgical emergency with sudden onset severe pain, absent cremasteric reflex, and high-riding testicle. Prostatitis (choice D) presents with symptoms like dysuria, pelvic pain, and fever, but the prostate exam here is unremarkable. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and examination findings, the most likely diagnosis is acute orchitis.
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Question 6
The nurse has been discussing actions to prevent AIDS-related wasting syndrome with a patient being treated for AIDS. Which patient statements indicate an understanding of this teaching? (Select all that apply.)
A. Eat a low-residue diet.
B. Drink liquids before meals.
C. Enjoy food odors to stimulate appetite.
D. Numb painful oral sores with ice or popsicles.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Eat a low-residue diet. This is because AIDS-related wasting syndrome can lead to malabsorption issues and gastrointestinal symptoms, making it difficult for the body to absorb nutrients from food. A low-residue diet is recommended to reduce the amount of fiber and bulk in the diet, making it easier for the body to digest and absorb nutrients. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically address the nutritional needs of a patient with AIDS-related wasting syndrome. Drinking liquids before meals may help with appetite but does not address nutrient absorption. Enjoying food odors may stimulate appetite but does not focus on nutrient intake. Numbing oral sores with ice or popsicles addresses symptom management but does not address the underlying issue of nutrient absorption.
The nurse is providing education to a pregnant person regarding the nausea and vomiting of pregnancy. Identify the relief measures the nurse would discuss. Select all that apply.
A. avoid dairy products
B. avoid strong odors
C. drink fluids between meals
D. drink sweet fluids
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: avoid dairy products. This is because dairy products can exacerbate nausea in some pregnant individuals due to their high fat content. Avoiding dairy products can help reduce nausea symptoms.
Rationale:
1. Avoiding dairy products: High fat content in dairy products can trigger nausea in some pregnant individuals.
2. Avoid strong odors: While strong odors can trigger nausea, it is not a specific relief measure for nausea and vomiting of pregnancy.
3. Drink fluids between meals: Staying hydrated is important, but drinking fluids between meals is not a specific relief measure for nausea and vomiting of pregnancy.
4. Drink sweet fluids: While some pregnant individuals find relief from nausea by consuming sweet fluids, it is not a universal recommendation and may not work for everyone.
A client has a new prescription for parenteral nutrition (PN) in 20% dextrose and fat emulsions. Which of the following is an appropriate action to include in the plan of care?
A. Monitor blood glucose levels daily.
B. Change the PN infusion bag every 24 hours.
C. Prepare the client for a central venous line.
D. Administer the PN and fat emulsion together.
Correct answer:
When a client requires parenteral nutrition (PN) with a high dextrose concentration, such as 20%, it typically has a high osmolarity. High osmolarity solutions should be infused through a central venous line to prevent peripheral vein irritation and potential complications. Therefore, preparing the client for a central venous line is essential for the safe administration of PN with high dextrose. Monitoring blood glucose levels daily is important but not directly related to the need for a central venous line. Changing the PN infusion bag every 24 hours helps prevent bacterial contamination, but it is not the most critical action in this scenario. Administering the PN and fat emulsion together or separately is a matter of compatibility and administration guidelines, but it is not the key concern in this situation.
The community health nurse is conducting a health screening of an immigrant family. Which finding is an indication of the need for T-Spot testing instead of Mantoux TST testing?
A. Prior vaccination with BCG
B. Family member who is 10 years of age
C. Symptoms of night sweats, fevers, chills, and hemoptysis
D. A negative chest X-ray and negative sputum testing for MTB
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Prior vaccination with BCG. The rationale is that BCG vaccination can cause false-positive results in Mantoux TST testing due to cross-reactivity with the tuberculin protein. T-Spot testing, which is based on measuring T-cell response to TB antigens, is not affected by BCG vaccination.
Summary of incorrect choices:
B: Family member who is 10 years of age - Age is not a determining factor in choosing between T-Spot and Mantoux testing.
C: Symptoms of night sweats, fevers, chills, and hemoptysis - These symptoms suggest active TB and would require further evaluation, not a choice between T-Spot and Mantoux testing.
D: A negative chest X-ray and negative sputum testing for MTB - These results indicate absence of active TB but do not guide the choice between T-Spot and Mantoux testing.
A client scheduled for arthroplasty expresses concern about the risk of acquiring an infection from a blood transfusion. Which of the following statements should the nurse make to the client?
A. Donate autologous blood before the surgery
B. Request a specific blood type from the donor
C. Use blood from a family member
D. Accept allogeneic blood without concerns
Correct answer:
The correct statement for the nurse to make to the client is to 'Donate autologous blood before the surgery.' Autologous blood donation involves collecting and storing the client's own blood for potential use during surgery, which significantly reduces the risk of transfusion-related infections. This option directly addresses the client's concern about infection risk. Requesting a specific blood type from a donor (Choice B) is not as effective in reducing infection risk compared to autologous blood donation. Using blood from a family member (Choice C) carries the risk of transfusion reactions and infections due to compatibility issues. Accepting allogeneic blood without concerns (Choice D) does not address the client's specific concern about infection risk and is not the most appropriate option in this situation.
What is the nurse’s first action if a client with leukemia becomes disoriented and complains of frequent headaches?
A. Call the physician.
B. Document the patient’s status in his charts.
C. Prepare oxygen treatment.
D. Raise the side rails.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Call the physician. In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize the client's safety and well-being by promptly notifying the physician about the client's sudden change in condition. Disorientation and frequent headaches in a leukemia patient could signal a serious complication, such as central nervous system involvement, which requires immediate medical intervention. Calling the physician ensures timely assessment and appropriate management.
B: Documenting the patient's status is important but not the first action in this critical situation.
C: Oxygen treatment may not be indicated based on the client's symptoms and needs further assessment by the physician.
D: Raising the side rails is not directly addressing the client's symptoms and does not provide immediate medical attention.
Which behaviors are necessary for a person to successfully adapt to a chronic illness?
A. Learn to live as normally as possible
B. Accept dependence and adjust to it
C. Maintain a positive self-concept
D. Give up control of one's life
Correct answer:
Adapting to a chronic illness requires behaviors that preserve identity and autonomy, like learning to live as normally as possible maintaining routines or roles despite symptoms, fostering resilience. Maintaining a positive self-concept bolsters emotional strength, countering illness-related esteem threats, while a sense of hope sustains motivation for management, like adhering to therapy. Accepting dependence or giving up control contradicts adaptation, as retaining agency e.g., self-managing diabetes enhances coping. Successful adaptation hinges on integrating the illness into life without letting it define it, supported by nursing guidance. Research shows these traits reduce psychological distress, enabling clients to thrive, aligning with nursing's goal to maximize function and well-being amidst chronicity.
The correct answer is A: Secretory phase. During the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle, the endometrial thickness is greatest due to increased progesterone levels, leading to thickening of the endometrium in preparation for potential implantation of a fertilized egg. This phase occurs after ovulation and is characterized by glandular secretions and increased vascularity to support a potential pregnancy.
Summary:
- Menstrual phase (B) is incorrect as it is characterized by shedding of the endometrial lining.
- Proliferative phase (C) is incorrect as it involves endometrial thickening but not to the extent seen in the secretory phase.
- Late follicular phase (D) is incorrect as it precedes ovulation and is primarily characterized by follicular development rather than significant endometrial thickening.
The nurse is caring for a patient with chest trauma. Which finding is most concerning?
A. Mild chest wall bruising.
B. Paradoxical chest wall movement.
C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
D. Subcutaneous emphysema near the injury site.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Paradoxical chest wall movement. This finding is most concerning because it indicates a flail chest, a serious condition where a segment of the chest wall moves in the opposite direction of the rest of the chest during breathing, leading to respiratory compromise and potential lung injury. This requires immediate medical intervention.
A: Mild chest wall bruising is less concerning as it may be a common finding in chest trauma without indicating severe underlying issues.
C: A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute falls within the normal range and may not necessarily indicate a critical condition.
D: Subcutaneous emphysema near the injury site can be concerning but is typically not as immediately critical as paradoxical chest wall movement in terms of respiratory compromise.
Several clients on a busy antepartum unit are scheduled for procedures that require informed consent. Which situation should the nurse explore further before witnessing the client's signature on the consent form?
A. The client was medicated for pain with a narcotic analgesic IM 6 hours ago
B. A 15-year-old primigravida who has been self-supporting for the past 6 months
C. The obstetrician explained a procedure that a neurologist will perform
D. The client is illiterate but verbalizes understanding and consent for the procedure
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because an illiterate client may require additional support to ensure they fully comprehend the information provided in the informed consent process. It is crucial to confirm that the client truly understands the nature of the procedure, its risks, and benefits. While it is important to assess pain control (choice A), a client's previous medication administration does not directly impact their ability to understand the consent process. Choice B, a 15-year-old primigravida who has been self-supporting, may legally provide informed consent depending on the jurisdiction and circumstances, so this situation may not require further exploration. Choice C, explaining a procedure by a different specialist, does not necessarily require additional exploration before witnessing the client's consent.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 101 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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