You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
The nurse demonstrates an understanding of effective data collection when interviewing a client regarding a family history when:
A. Basing the assessment on a universally accepted definition of family.
B. Constructing a genogram as a basis for documenting the information gathered.
C. Recognizing that the Family Apgar tool is used for assessing single parent families.
D. Gathering information on at least four generations of the client's family members.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Constructing a genogram as a basis for documenting the information gathered.
The correct answer is B because constructing a genogram is an effective way to visually represent a client's family history, including relationships and health conditions. Genograms provide a comprehensive overview of family dynamics and can aid in identifying patterns of health issues. This method allows for organized documentation of information gathered, enhancing data accuracy and analysis.
Choice A is incorrect as there is no universally accepted definition of family, which can vary culturally and individually. Choice C is incorrect as the Family Apgar tool assesses family functioning, not specific family structures. Choice D is incorrect because gathering information on at least four generations may not always be necessary or feasible, and the depth of information is more important than the number of generations.
Question 2
Which action should the nurse take before administering gentamicin (Garamycin) to a patient with acute osteomyelitis?
A. Ask the patient about any nausea.
B. Obtain the patient’s oral temperature.
C. Review the patient’s serum creatinine.
D. Change the prescribed wet-to-dry dressing.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Review the patient’s serum creatinine.
The correct action before administering gentamicin for a patient with acute osteomyelitis is to review the patient’s serum creatinine (Choice C). This is crucial because gentamicin is nephrotoxic, and assessing the patient's renal function helps to prevent kidney damage. Checking for serum creatinine levels allows the nurse to determine if the patient's kidneys can safely metabolize and excrete the medication without causing harm.
Choice A (Ask the patient about any nausea) is not directly related to the safe administration of gentamicin for osteomyelitis. Choice B (Obtain the patient’s oral temperature) is important for monitoring infection but is not specifically required before administering gentamicin. Choice D (Change the prescribed wet-to-dry dressing) is unrelated to medication administration and wound care.
Question 3
A drug has a complex molecular mechanism of action that includes a blockade of presynaptic alphareceptors. Which of the following drugs was most likely given?
A. Amitriptyline
B. Clonidine
C. Bupropion
D. Mirtazapine
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Clonidine
The correct answer is B: Clonidine. Clonidine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist, which means it acts by stimulating presynaptic alpha-2 receptors, leading to a decrease in norepinephrine release. This matches the drug described in the question that blocks presynaptic alphareceptors.
Amitriptyline (A) is a tricyclic antidepressant that primarily acts by blocking the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine.
Bupropion (C) is an atypical antidepressant that inhibits the reuptake of dopamine and norepinephrine.
Mirtazapine (D) is a noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressant that enhances serotonin and norepinephrine activity through different mechanisms.
Therefore, Clonidine is the most likely drug given due to its action on presynaptic alphareceptors, while the other choices have different mechanisms
Question 4
A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD). The patient is experiencing fluid retention. What is the priority action?
A. Administer diuretics.
B. Administer insulin.
C. Administer IV fluids.
D. Administer IV fluids.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Administer insulin.
The correct answer is B: Administer insulin. In a patient with CKD experiencing fluid retention, insulin is the priority action. Insulin helps to regulate blood glucose levels, which can impact fluid balance in the body. High blood glucose levels can lead to osmotic diuresis, causing fluid retention. Administering insulin helps to lower blood glucose levels, which in turn can help reduce fluid retention.
Choice A: Administer diuretics - While diuretics can help with fluid retention, in a patient with CKD, using diuretics without addressing the underlying cause (high blood glucose levels) can worsen kidney function.
Choice C and D: Administer IV fluids - Administering more fluids would exacerbate the fluid retention issue in a patient with CKD. It is important to address the underlying cause of fluid retention first.
Question 5
Thirty minutes after receiving IV morphine, a postoperative client continues to rate pain as 7 on a 10-point scale. Which action should the PN implement first?
A. Call healthcare provider to request a different analgesic
B. Determine when morphine can be given again
C. Implement complementary pain relief methods
D. Observe dressing to determine the presence of bleeding
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Implement complementary pain relief methods
The most appropriate action for the PN to implement first is to implement complementary pain relief methods. This includes repositioning the client, applying heat or cold packs, or using relaxation techniques. These strategies can provide additional pain relief before the next dose of medication is due or before seeking further instructions from the healthcare provider. Calling the healthcare provider immediately to request a different analgesic (Choice A) may not be necessary at this moment since other non-pharmacological methods can be attempted first. Determining when morphine can be given again (Choice B) is important but addressing the client's immediate pain relief takes precedence. Observing the dressing for bleeding (Choice D) is important but not the first priority when the client is experiencing unrelieved pain.
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Question 6
The nurse is caring for a client who was successfully resuscitated from a pulseless dysrhythmia. Which of the following assessments is MOST critical for the nurse to include in the plan of care?
A. Hourly urine output
B. White blood cell count
C. Blood glucose every 4 hours
D. Temperature every 2 hours
Correct answer:
Monitoring hourly urine output is crucial after successful resuscitation from a pulseless dysrhythmia to assess kidney function and perfusion. The kidneys are particularly vulnerable to injury following cardiac events due to decreased perfusion during the event. Evaluating urine output hourly allows for early detection of renal impairment or inadequate organ perfusion. Option B, monitoring white blood cell count, is not a priority in this situation as it does not directly relate to immediate post-resuscitation care. Option C, checking blood glucose every 4 hours, is important but not as critical as assessing kidney function and perfusion. Option D, measuring temperature every 2 hours, is relevant for monitoring signs of infection or inflammatory response but is not as crucial as assessing kidney function in this scenario.
Which nursing diagnosis is the priority when caring for a patient with a traumatic brain injury who had a tracheostomy placed?
A. Risk for skin breakdown
B. Impaired gas exchange
C. Ineffective airway clearance
D. Risk for infection
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Impaired gas exchange. This is the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with a traumatic brain injury and a tracheostomy because it directly affects the patient's oxygenation and ventilation, which are essential for sustaining life. Impaired gas exchange can lead to hypoxia and respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation.
Choice A, Risk for skin breakdown, is important but not the priority as it can be managed with proper positioning and skin care. Choice C, Ineffective airway clearance, is related to the tracheostomy but is not the priority over ensuring adequate gas exchange. Choice D, Risk for infection, is also important but does not take precedence over addressing impaired gas exchange, which is critical for the patient's immediate well-being.
Which of the following statistics is used by countries to compare the success of their health care systems?
A. Attack rate
B. Infant mortality rate
C. Proportionate mortality ratio
D. Cause-specific mortality rate
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Infant mortality rate. This statistic is used to compare the success of health care systems as it reflects the number of deaths of infants under one year old per 1,000 live births. A lower infant mortality rate indicates better access to healthcare and overall health outcomes.
A: Attack rate is used to measure the frequency of new cases of a disease in a population during a specific time period, not specific to healthcare system comparison.
C: Proportionate mortality ratio is a measure of the proportion of deaths from a specific cause compared to all deaths, not specifically for comparing healthcare systems.
D: Cause-specific mortality rate measures the number of deaths from a specific cause in a population, which is not comprehensive enough to evaluate overall healthcare system success.
A 45-year-old electrical engineer presents to your clinic, complaining of spots on his scrotum. He first noticed the spots several months ago, and they have gotten bigger. He denies any pain with urination or with sexual intercourse. He has had no fever, night sweats, weight gain, or weight loss. His past medical history consists of a vasectomy 10 years ago and mild obesity. He is on medication for hyperlipidemia. He denies any tobacco or illegal drug use and drinks alcohol socially. His mother has Alzheimer's disease and his father died of leukemia. On examination he appears relaxed and has unremarkable vital signs. On visualization of his penis, he is circumcised and has no lesions on his penis. Visualization of his scrotum shows three yellow nodules 2–3 millimeters in diameter. During palpation they are firm and nontender. What abnormality of the male genitalia is this most likely to be?
A. Condylomata acuminata
B. Syphilitic chancre
C. Peyronie's disease
D. Epidermoid cysts
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Epidermoid cysts. Epidermoid cysts are common benign cysts that can occur on the scrotum. In this case, the description of firm, nontender yellow nodules on the scrotum fits with the presentation of epidermoid cysts. The patient's history of gradual growth and lack of associated symptoms such as pain or systemic symptoms also support this diagnosis. Condylomata acuminata (choice A) are genital warts caused by HPV and typically present as soft, pink, or grayish growths. Syphilitic chancre (choice B) is a painless ulcer caused by syphilis, which would not present as yellow nodules. Peyronie's disease (choice C) involves curvature of the penis and is not related to scrotal nodules. Therefore, based on the presentation and characteristics of the lesions, epidermoid cysts are the most likely diagnosis.
A decision grid allows a decision maker to do which one of the following?
A. Quantify and explain detailed information
B. Examine alternatives visually and compare each against the same criteria
C. Plot a decision over time
D. Predict when events must take place to complete a project on time.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Examine alternatives visually and compare each against the same criteria. A decision grid is a tool used in decision-making to visually display and compare different alternatives based on specific criteria. By organizing information in a structured format, decision makers can easily evaluate and compare the pros and cons of each alternative. This process helps in making informed decisions based on a systematic analysis.
Choice A is incorrect because a decision grid does not necessarily quantify and explain detailed information, but rather facilitates comparison. Choice C is incorrect as decision grids are not used to plot decisions over time, but to compare alternatives. Choice D is incorrect as decision grids do not specifically predict when events must take place to complete a project on time.
The client is scheduled for an intravenous pyelograph (IVP) to determine the location of the renal calculi. Which of the following measures would be most important for the nurse to include in pretest preparation?
A. Ensuring adequate fluid intake on the day of the test
B. Preparing the client for the possibility of bladder spasms during the test
C. Checking the client’s history for allergy to iodine
D. Determining when the client last had a bowel movement
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Checking the client's history for allergy to iodine. This is crucial for IVP as iodine contrast dye is used, and an allergic reaction can occur. It is important to identify any potential allergies beforehand to prevent a serious reaction during the test.
A: Ensuring adequate fluid intake on the day of the test - While hydration is important, it is not the most critical factor in pretest preparation for IVP.
B: Preparing the client for the possibility of bladder spasms during the test - While informing the client about possible discomfort is important, it is not as essential as identifying allergies to iodine.
D: Determining when the client last had a bowel movement - Bowel movement history is not directly related to the IVP procedure and is not as critical as checking for iodine allergy.
Which is the priority nursing diagnosis when providing care to a client diagnosed with paranoid personality disorder?
A. Risk for violence: directed toward others R/T suspicious thoughts
B. Risk for suicide R/T altered thought processes
C. Altered sensory perception R/T increased levels of anxiety
D. Social isolation R/T inability to relate to others
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Risk for violence directed toward others R/T suspicious thoughts. This is the priority nursing diagnosis for a client with paranoid personality disorder because individuals with this disorder often have intense distrust and suspicion of others, which can lead to potential violent behaviors. Addressing this risk is crucial for ensuring the safety of both the client and others.
Choice B, Risk for suicide, is not the priority as paranoid personality disorder is not typically associated with a high risk of suicide. Choice C, Altered sensory perception, is not directly related to paranoid personality disorder. Choice D, Social isolation, while a common issue for individuals with this disorder, does not pose an immediate risk to others like the potential violence associated with suspicious thoughts.
Which student statement indicates further instruction is needed regarding developmental characteristics of clients diagnosed with moderate ID?
A. "These clients can work in a sheltered workshop setting."
B. "These clients can perform some personal care activities."
C. "These clients may have difficulty relating to peers."
D. "These clients can successfully complete elementary school."
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because clients with moderate intellectual disabilities typically struggle with academic tasks, making it unlikely for them to successfully complete elementary school without significant support. This indicates a need for further instruction on understanding the developmental characteristics of clients with moderate ID.
A: This choice is incorrect because clients with moderate ID can often work in a sheltered workshop setting with appropriate accommodations and support.
B: This choice is incorrect because clients with moderate ID can usually perform some personal care activities independently or with assistance.
C: This choice is incorrect because clients with moderate ID may indeed have difficulty relating to peers due to social and communication challenges associated with their disability.
The nurse is teaching a patient about Follistim AQ, a medication prescribed for ovulation induction. What information should be included?
A. Eggs or oocytes develop within ovarian follicles. The medication stimulates their development.
B. Follistim is a manufactured form of FSH, a hormone released during the menstrual cycle.
C. Rapid weight gain is typical during ovulation induction.
D. Side effects include breast tenderness and changes in mood.
Correct answer:
Step 1: Follistim AQ is a medication used for ovulation induction.
Step 2: The medication contains FSH, a hormone that stimulates follicular development.
Step 3: Eggs (oocytes) develop within ovarian follicles during the menstrual cycle.
Step 4: Follistim AQ stimulates the growth and development of ovarian follicles.
Step 5: Therefore, Option A is correct as it accurately explains how Follistim AQ works.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: While Follistim is a form of FSH, the key point is its role in stimulating follicular development, not just being a manufactured hormone.
C: Rapid weight gain is not a typical effect of ovulation induction with Follistim AQ.
D: Side effects like breast tenderness and mood changes may occur, but they are not the primary focus of educating a patient about how the medication works.
A nurse reports that in comparison to all the children in a particular school, the children who
A. Which of the following recommendations would the nurse make to the new parents of two boys who had just moved into this school’s neighborhood?
B. Discourage the parents from enrolling their sons in Cub Scouts because of the risk.
C. Don’t say anything about Cub Scouts, because it isn’t relevant to nursing car
D. Encourage the parents to enroll their sons in Cub Scouts.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Encourage the parents to enroll their sons in Cub Scouts. The rationale for this is that the nurse should be promoting activities that have a positive impact on the children's development, such as Cub Scouts. Cub Scouts provide opportunities for social interaction, skill-building, leadership development, and community involvement. By encouraging the parents to enroll their sons in Cub Scouts, the nurse is supporting their holistic growth and well-being.
Choice A is incorrect because it is unrelated to the nurse's role and does not address the children's well-being. Choice B is incorrect as it discourages a potentially beneficial activity without valid reasoning. Choice C is incorrect as it dismisses the potential benefits of Cub Scouts and does not consider the children's overall development.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 94 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
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