LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 89

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LPN exams fundamentals practice questions set 89

You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.

Five fundamentals questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

A patient with thoracic trauma is admitted to the ICU. The nurse notes the patients chest and neck are swollen and there is a crackling sensation when palpated. The nurse consequently identifies the presence of subcutaneous emphysema. If this condition becomes severe and threatens airway patency, what intervention is indicated?

  1. A. A chest tube
  2. B. A tracheostomy
  3. C. An endotracheal tube
  4. D. A feeding tube
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — A tracheostomy

Subcutaneous emphysema air trapped in subcutaneous tissues, causing swelling and crepitus arises from thoracic trauma (e.g., pneumothorax, bronchial rupture). When severe, it can compress the trachea, threatening airway patency, necessitating a tracheostomy to bypass upper airway obstruction and ensure ventilation. A chest tube treats the underlying pneumothorax, relieving pleural air but not subcutaneous spread impacting the airway directly. Endotracheal intubation may fail if tracheal compression prevents tube passage, making it less effective in this scenario. A feeding tube is irrelevant to airway management. The nurse's anticipation of tracheostomy reflects its role in securing a patent airway when subcutaneous air from trauma escalates, a critical intervention supported by trauma care protocols for maintaining oxygenation.

Question 2

Which of the following is inappropriate nursing action when administering NGT feeding?

  1. A. Place the feeding 20 inches above the point if insertion of NGT.
  2. B. Introduce the feeding slowly.
  3. C. Instill 60 ml of water into the NGT after feeding.
  4. D. Assist the patient in Fowler's position.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Place the feeding 20 inches above the point if insertion of NGT.

Placing the feeding 20 inches above the nasogastric tube's insertion point is inappropriate, as excessive height causes rapid flow, risking aspiration or gastric distension. Standard practice recommends 12-18 inches for controlled delivery, ensuring patient safety and comfort. Introducing the feeding slowly prevents sudden stomach overload, reducing nausea or reflux correct practice. Instilling 60 ml of water post-feeding clears the tube, maintaining patency and hydration a standard, appropriate step. Assisting the patient into Fowler's position (elevated head) minimizes aspiration risk, aligning with best practice. The excessive height deviates from guidelines, potentially overwhelming the stomach's capacity and compromising digestion or respiratory safety, making it the clear inappropriate action in NGT feeding administration.

Question 3

Which of the following assessments is most indicative of adequate peripheral circulation?

  1. A. Pallor in the extremities.
  2. B. Capillary refill time less than 2 seconds.
  3. C. Cool skin temperature in the lower extremities.
  4. D. Diminished dorsalis pedis pulse.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Capillary refill time less than 2 seconds.

The correct answer is B: Capillary refill time less than 2 seconds. This assessment is indicative of adequate peripheral circulation because it measures how quickly blood refills in the capillaries after they have been compressed. A capillary refill time of less than 2 seconds indicates normal circulation, as it demonstrates that blood is flowing efficiently to the extremities. Rationale: A: Pallor in the extremities indicates poor circulation and reduced blood flow, which is not indicative of adequate peripheral circulation. C: Cool skin temperature in the lower extremities suggests vasoconstriction and reduced blood flow, not adequate circulation. D: Diminished dorsalis pedis pulse indicates a weak or absent pulse in the foot, which is a sign of impaired circulation and not indicative of adequate peripheral circulation.

Question 4

The school guidance counselor refers a family with an 8-year-old child to the mental health clinic because of the child's frequent fighting in school and truancy. Which of the following data would be a priority to the nurse doing the initial family assessment?

  1. A. The child's performance in school
  2. B. Family education and work history
  3. C. The family's perception of the current problem
  4. D. The teacher's attempt to solve the problem
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — The family's perception of the current problem

The correct answer is C because understanding the family's perception of the current problem is crucial to building rapport and developing a comprehensive assessment. By exploring the family's perspective, the nurse can gain insight into their understanding of the situation, beliefs, and potential barriers to intervention. This information can guide the nurse in formulating an appropriate plan of care that aligns with the family's values and needs. Choice A (The child's performance in school) may provide valuable information but is not as essential as understanding the family's perception of the problem. Choice B (Family education and work history) is important but not a priority at this stage. Choice D (The teacher's attempt to solve the problem) is also relevant but not as critical as understanding the family's viewpoint.

Question 5

Following change-of-shift report on an orthopedic unit, which client should the nurse see first?

  1. A. 16-year-old who had an open reduction of a fractured wrist 10 hours ago
  2. B. 20-year-old in skeletal traction for 2 weeks since a motorcycle accident
  3. C. 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago
  4. D. 75-year-old who is in skin traction prior to planned hip pinning surgery
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago

The 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago should be seen first due to the potential for immediate post-operative complications. This patient is in the immediate postoperative period and requires close monitoring for any signs of complications such as bleeding, infection, or impaired circulation. The other patients are relatively stable compared to the patient who just had surgery and therefore can wait for assessment and care without immediate risk. The 16-year-old had surgery ten hours ago, which is longer than the 72-year-old and is at a lower risk for immediate complications. The 20-year-old in skeletal traction for two weeks is stable in his current condition. The 75-year-old in skin traction before planned surgery does not require immediate attention as the surgery has not yet taken place.

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Question 6

Each time a nursing assistant greets a resident, he should

  1. A. Assume that the resident knows who he is
  2. B. Explain the procedure to be performed
  3. C. Reassure the resident that she will not have to do anything during the procedure
  4. D. Avoid telling the resident about the procedure if he thinks it will upset her
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 7

What is the benefit of inducing mild hypothermia to a post-arrest patient who has a return of spontaneous circulation?

  1. A. Hypothermia reduces the body's need for stored energy (sugar) to maintain homeostasis
  2. B. Hypothermia increases blood flow to the brain and heart while reducing blood flow to the peripheral tissues
  3. C. It reduces intracranial pressure, the cerebral metabolic rate, and protects neurological function
  4. D. Hypothermia increases cardiac output by increasing myocardial contractility
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Question 8

A nurse is taking a health history of a male patient with a possible diagnosis of erectile dysfunction. Which of the following statements made by the patient would the nurse recognize as risk factors for erectile dysfunction?

  1. A. I have had type 1 diabetes mellitus since I was 8 years old.
  2. B. I frequently have urinary tract infections.
  3. C. I am taking medications to control my blood pressure.
  4. D. I have an enlarged prostate gland.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 9

A new staff nurse completes an orientation to the psychiatric unit. This nurse will expect to ask an advanced practice nurse to perform which action for patients?

  1. A. Perform mental health assessment interviews.
  2. B. Prescribe psychotropic medication.
  3. C. Establish therapeutic relationships.
  4. D. Individualize nursing care plans.
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Question 10

The nurse is teaching a client with chronic bronchitis about energy conservation techniques. Which strategy should the nurse include in the teaching?

  1. A. Avoiding long periods of rest to prevent lung stiffness.
  2. B. Performing high-intensity exercises to strengthen the lungs.
  3. C. Sitting while performing tasks like cooking or ironing.
  4. D. Taking deep breaths before any physical activity.
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Question 11

Which one of the following should be performed first in any patient whose injuries may include multiple closed extremity fractures?

  1. A. "A thorough assessment of four limb perfusion"
  2. B. "Maneuvers to prevent necrosis of the skin"
  3. C. "Extremity compartment syndrome release"
  4. D. "Ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation"
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Question 12

The nurse is assessing a patient's skin and notes a raised, rough lesion with a wart-like appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. A. Seborrheic keratosis.
  2. B. Basal cell carcinoma.
  3. C. Actinic keratosis.
  4. D. Squamous cell carcinoma.
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Question 13

What is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting?

  1. A. Hand hygiene
  2. B. Wearing personal protective equipment
  3. C. Sterilizing equipment
  4. D. Isolating infected patients
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Question 14

A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?

  1. A. Monitor the client's blood glucose level.
  2. B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
  3. C. Administer insulin as prescribed.
  4. D. Assess the client's urine output.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 15

Describe how the ACA will impact pharmacy practice

  1. A. Increased patient access, new medication therapies
  2. B. More prescription drug regulation, pharmacy reimbursements
  3. C. Expanded roles in disease management, medication therapy management
  4. D. Reduced access to medications, stricter medication regulations
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

About these LPN exams fundamentals questions

LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 89 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.

The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

Keep going past these 15 questions

Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.