You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A patient with thoracic trauma is admitted to the ICU. The nurse notes the patients chest and neck are swollen and there is a crackling sensation when palpated. The nurse consequently identifies the presence of subcutaneous emphysema. If this condition becomes severe and threatens airway patency, what intervention is indicated?
A. A chest tube
B. A tracheostomy
C. An endotracheal tube
D. A feeding tube
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — A tracheostomy
Subcutaneous emphysema air trapped in subcutaneous tissues, causing swelling and crepitus arises from thoracic trauma (e.g., pneumothorax, bronchial rupture). When severe, it can compress the trachea, threatening airway patency, necessitating a tracheostomy to bypass upper airway obstruction and ensure ventilation. A chest tube treats the underlying pneumothorax, relieving pleural air but not subcutaneous spread impacting the airway directly. Endotracheal intubation may fail if tracheal compression prevents tube passage, making it less effective in this scenario. A feeding tube is irrelevant to airway management. The nurse's anticipation of tracheostomy reflects its role in securing a patent airway when subcutaneous air from trauma escalates, a critical intervention supported by trauma care protocols for maintaining oxygenation.
Question 2
Which of the following is inappropriate nursing action when administering NGT feeding?
A. Place the feeding 20 inches above the point if insertion of NGT.
B. Introduce the feeding slowly.
C. Instill 60 ml of water into the NGT after feeding.
D. Assist the patient in Fowler's position.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Place the feeding 20 inches above the point if insertion of NGT.
Placing the feeding 20 inches above the nasogastric tube's insertion point is inappropriate, as excessive height causes rapid flow, risking aspiration or gastric distension. Standard practice recommends 12-18 inches for controlled delivery, ensuring patient safety and comfort. Introducing the feeding slowly prevents sudden stomach overload, reducing nausea or reflux correct practice. Instilling 60 ml of water post-feeding clears the tube, maintaining patency and hydration a standard, appropriate step. Assisting the patient into Fowler's position (elevated head) minimizes aspiration risk, aligning with best practice. The excessive height deviates from guidelines, potentially overwhelming the stomach's capacity and compromising digestion or respiratory safety, making it the clear inappropriate action in NGT feeding administration.
Question 3
Which of the following assessments is most indicative of adequate peripheral circulation?
A. Pallor in the extremities.
B. Capillary refill time less than 2 seconds.
C. Cool skin temperature in the lower extremities.
D. Diminished dorsalis pedis pulse.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Capillary refill time less than 2 seconds.
The correct answer is B: Capillary refill time less than 2 seconds. This assessment is indicative of adequate peripheral circulation because it measures how quickly blood refills in the capillaries after they have been compressed. A capillary refill time of less than 2 seconds indicates normal circulation, as it demonstrates that blood is flowing efficiently to the extremities.
Rationale:
A: Pallor in the extremities indicates poor circulation and reduced blood flow, which is not indicative of adequate peripheral circulation.
C: Cool skin temperature in the lower extremities suggests vasoconstriction and reduced blood flow, not adequate circulation.
D: Diminished dorsalis pedis pulse indicates a weak or absent pulse in the foot, which is a sign of impaired circulation and not indicative of adequate peripheral circulation.
Question 4
The school guidance counselor refers a family with an 8-year-old child to the mental health clinic because of the child's frequent fighting in school and truancy. Which of the following data would be a priority to the nurse doing the initial family assessment?
A. The child's performance in school
B. Family education and work history
C. The family's perception of the current problem
D. The teacher's attempt to solve the problem
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — The family's perception of the current problem
The correct answer is C because understanding the family's perception of the current problem is crucial to building rapport and developing a comprehensive assessment. By exploring the family's perspective, the nurse can gain insight into their understanding of the situation, beliefs, and potential barriers to intervention. This information can guide the nurse in formulating an appropriate plan of care that aligns with the family's values and needs.
Choice A (The child's performance in school) may provide valuable information but is not as essential as understanding the family's perception of the problem. Choice B (Family education and work history) is important but not a priority at this stage. Choice D (The teacher's attempt to solve the problem) is also relevant but not as critical as understanding the family's viewpoint.
Question 5
Following change-of-shift report on an orthopedic unit, which client should the nurse see first?
A. 16-year-old who had an open reduction of a fractured wrist 10 hours ago
B. 20-year-old in skeletal traction for 2 weeks since a motorcycle accident
C. 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago
D. 75-year-old who is in skin traction prior to planned hip pinning surgery
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago
The 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago should be seen first due to the potential for immediate post-operative complications. This patient is in the immediate postoperative period and requires close monitoring for any signs of complications such as bleeding, infection, or impaired circulation. The other patients are relatively stable compared to the patient who just had surgery and therefore can wait for assessment and care without immediate risk. The 16-year-old had surgery ten hours ago, which is longer than the 72-year-old and is at a lower risk for immediate complications. The 20-year-old in skeletal traction for two weeks is stable in his current condition. The 75-year-old in skin traction before planned surgery does not require immediate attention as the surgery has not yet taken place.
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Question 6
Each time a nursing assistant greets a resident, he should
A. Assume that the resident knows who he is
B. Explain the procedure to be performed
C. Reassure the resident that she will not have to do anything during the procedure
D. Avoid telling the resident about the procedure if he thinks it will upset her
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because it is important for a nursing assistant to explain the procedure to be performed to ensure informed consent and promote resident autonomy. By explaining the procedure, the resident can understand what will happen and feel more comfortable and involved in their care. This fosters a trusting and respectful relationship between the nursing assistant and the resident.
Choice A is incorrect because it assumes the resident knows who the nursing assistant is, which may not always be the case. Choice C is incorrect because reassuring the resident that she will not have to do anything during the procedure may not be necessary for all procedures and may not address the resident's specific concerns. Choice D is incorrect because withholding information from the resident can lead to mistrust and anxiety.
What is the benefit of inducing mild hypothermia to a post-arrest patient who has a return of spontaneous circulation?
A. Hypothermia reduces the body's need for stored energy (sugar) to maintain homeostasis
B. Hypothermia increases blood flow to the brain and heart while reducing blood flow to the peripheral tissues
C. It reduces intracranial pressure, the cerebral metabolic rate, and protects neurological function
D. Hypothermia increases cardiac output by increasing myocardial contractility
Correct answer:
Post-cardiac arrest with return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) benefits from therapeutic hypothermia (32-36°C) to limit brain injury. Cooling lowers the cerebral metabolic rate, reducing oxygen and glucose demand, which curbs secondary damage from reperfusion. It also decreases intracranial pressure by minimizing edema and inflammation, preserving neurological function critical after hypoxia. Reducing stored energy use is a minor effect, not the primary goal. Redirecting blood flow isn't the mechanism; hypothermia globally slows metabolism. Cardiac output doesn't increase contractility may even decrease slightly but neuroprotection outweighs this. Per AHA guidelines, this intervention improves outcomes in comatose ROSC patients, targeting brain preservation over systemic effects, making it a cornerstone of post-arrest care.
A nurse is taking a health history of a male patient with a possible diagnosis of erectile dysfunction. Which of the following statements made by the patient would the nurse recognize as risk factors for erectile dysfunction?
A. I have had type 1 diabetes mellitus since I was 8 years old.
B. I frequently have urinary tract infections.
C. I am taking medications to control my blood pressure.
D. I have an enlarged prostate gland.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because type 1 diabetes mellitus is a well-known risk factor for erectile dysfunction due to its impact on blood flow and nerve function. Diabetes can damage blood vessels and nerves that are essential for achieving and maintaining an erection. This patient's long history of type 1 diabetes increases the likelihood of developing erectile dysfunction.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because urinary tract infections, blood pressure medications, and an enlarged prostate gland are not directly associated with erectile dysfunction. Urinary tract infections typically do not affect erectile function, blood pressure medications may have erectile dysfunction as a side effect but are not a direct risk factor, and an enlarged prostate gland is more related to urinary symptoms rather than erectile dysfunction.
A new staff nurse completes an orientation to the psychiatric unit. This nurse will expect to ask an advanced practice nurse to perform which action for patients?
A. Perform mental health assessment interviews.
B. Prescribe psychotropic medication.
C. Establish therapeutic relationships.
D. Individualize nursing care plans.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because only advanced practice nurses, such as psychiatric nurse practitioners, have the authority to prescribe psychotropic medications. This action falls under their scope of practice and requires advanced education and training in pharmacology and mental health. Asking an advanced practice nurse to prescribe psychotropic medication ensures that patients receive appropriate and safe pharmacological interventions.
A: Mental health assessment interviews can be performed by staff nurses, not limited to advanced practice nurses.
C: Establishing therapeutic relationships is a fundamental nursing skill that all nurses, including staff nurses, should possess.
D: Individualizing nursing care plans is a responsibility of all nurses and does not specifically require involvement of advanced practice nurses.
The nurse is teaching a client with chronic bronchitis about energy conservation techniques. Which strategy should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. Avoiding long periods of rest to prevent lung stiffness.
B. Performing high-intensity exercises to strengthen the lungs.
C. Sitting while performing tasks like cooking or ironing.
D. Taking deep breaths before any physical activity.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Sitting while performing tasks like cooking or ironing. This strategy helps conserve energy by reducing the strain on the respiratory system, which is important for clients with chronic bronchitis. Sitting minimizes the energy expenditure required for these tasks, allowing the client to conserve energy for other activities.
Choice A is incorrect because avoiding long periods of rest is not recommended for clients with chronic bronchitis as they need to conserve energy to prevent exacerbations. Choice B is incorrect because high-intensity exercises can actually worsen symptoms and strain the lungs in clients with chronic bronchitis. Choice D is incorrect because taking deep breaths before physical activity may not necessarily conserve energy and could potentially lead to increased respiratory effort.
Which one of the following should be performed first in any patient whose injuries may include multiple closed extremity fractures?
A. "A thorough assessment of four limb perfusion"
B. "Maneuvers to prevent necrosis of the skin"
C. "Extremity compartment syndrome release"
D. "Ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation"
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: "Ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation" should be performed first in any patient with potential multiple closed extremity fractures. This is because prioritizing oxygenation and ventilation is crucial to prevent hypoxia and respiratory compromise, which can be life-threatening. Once the patient's oxygenation and ventilation are stabilized, further assessments and interventions can be performed.
A: "A thorough assessment of four limb perfusion" may be important but ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation takes precedence.
B: "Maneuvers to prevent necrosis of the skin" is not the immediate priority over ensuring oxygenation and ventilation.
C: "Extremity compartment syndrome release" is a critical intervention but should be performed after ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation.
The nurse is assessing a patient's skin and notes a raised, rough lesion with a wart-like appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Seborrheic keratosis.
B. Basal cell carcinoma.
C. Actinic keratosis.
D. Squamous cell carcinoma.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Seborrheic keratosis. This diagnosis is likely due to the lesion's raised, rough, and wart-like appearance, which is characteristic of seborrheic keratosis. Seborrheic keratosis is a common benign skin growth that typically appears in older individuals and presents as brown, black, or tan growths with a waxy, stuck-on appearance. It is important to note that seborrheic keratosis is non-cancerous and does not require immediate medical treatment.
Summary:
- B: Basal cell carcinoma typically presents as a pearly or waxy bump, not a raised, rough lesion with a wart-like appearance.
- C: Actinic keratosis is a precancerous skin condition characterized by rough, scaly patches, not a raised, wart-like lesion.
- D: Squamous cell carcinoma usually appears as a firm red nodule or a flat lesion with a scaly
What is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting?
A. Hand hygiene
B. Wearing personal protective equipment
C. Sterilizing equipment
D. Isolating infected patients
Correct answer:
Hand hygiene is considered the most effective method to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting. Proper hand hygiene, including washing hands with soap and water or using hand sanitizer, is crucial in reducing the transmission of pathogens from one person to another. While wearing personal protective equipment, sterilizing equipment, and isolating infected patients are also important infection control measures, they are not as universally effective as hand hygiene in preventing the spread of infections. Personal protective equipment can prevent contact with infectious materials, sterilizing equipment reduces the risk of contamination, and isolating infected patients helps prevent the spread of specific infections, but they are more targeted approaches compared to the broad and essential practice of hand hygiene.
A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?
A. Monitor the client's blood glucose level.
B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
C. Administer insulin as prescribed.
D. Assess the client's urine output.
Correct answer:
The most critical action for the nurse to take when a client with diabetes mellitus presents with symptoms of hyperglycemia such as polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia is to monitor the client's blood glucose level. This action helps in assessing the client's current glycemic status and guides further interventions. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice B) may be beneficial in managing dehydration caused by polyuria, but it does not address the underlying cause of hyperglycemia. Administering insulin as prescribed (Choice C) may be necessary based on the blood glucose monitoring results, but monitoring should precede any medication administration. Assessing the client's urine output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the primary concern of evaluating and managing hyperglycemia in a client with diabetes.
Describe how the ACA will impact pharmacy practice
A. Increased patient access, new medication therapies
B. More prescription drug regulation, pharmacy reimbursements
C. Expanded roles in disease management, medication therapy management
D. Reduced access to medications, stricter medication regulations
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because the Affordable Care Act (ACA) expands the role of pharmacists in disease management and medication therapy management. This is achieved through provisions that promote team-based care, medication therapy management services, and collaborative practice agreements. Pharmacists are now able to provide more comprehensive care, leading to improved patient outcomes.
Choice A is incorrect because the ACA aims to improve patient access to healthcare, not specifically medication therapies. Choice B is incorrect as the ACA focuses on increasing access to care rather than increasing prescription drug regulations or affecting pharmacy reimbursements. Choice D is incorrect as the ACA aims to improve access to medications and healthcare services, not reduce access or impose stricter medication regulations.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 89 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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