You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. I should limit my intake of protein to prevent overworking my kidneys.
B. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
C. I should increase my intake of phosphorus-rich foods.
D. I should increase my intake of calcium-rich foods.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — I should limit my intake of protein to prevent overworking my kidneys.
The correct answer is A. In chronic kidney disease, limiting protein intake is crucial to prevent overworking the kidneys. Excessive protein consumption can lead to the accumulation of metabolic waste products that the kidneys struggle to process, worsening kidney function. Therefore, by recognizing the need to restrict protein intake, the client demonstrates an understanding of the dietary management required for their condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods (Choice B) is not recommended in chronic kidney disease as it can lead to hyperkalemia. Similarly, increasing intake of phosphorus-rich foods (Choice C) is not advised because impaired kidneys struggle to excrete phosphorus, leading to elevated levels in the blood. Lastly, increasing intake of calcium-rich foods (Choice D) may not be necessary unless there is a specific deficiency or requirement, as calcium balance is often disrupted in chronic kidney disease.
Question 2
A client who is unconscious needs frequent mouth care. When performing mouth care, the best position of a client is:
A. Fowler's position
B. Side lying
C. Supine
D. Trendelenburg
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Side lying
Positioning an unconscious client for mouth care requires prioritizing airway protection and procedural safety. An unconscious client is at risk for aspiration of saliva, secretions, or cleaning solutions, as they lack a gag reflex and cannot swallow effectively. The side-lying position (B) is optimal because it allows gravity to drain secretions out of the mouth, reducing the risk of aspiration into the lungs. Fowler's position (A), a semi-upright posture, is useful for alert clients but less effective for unconscious ones, as secretions may still pool in the throat. Supine (C), lying flat on the back, increases aspiration risk by allowing fluids to flow toward the airway. Trendelenburg (D), with the head lower than the feet, is contraindicated as it exacerbates aspiration risk and is typically used for specific circulatory interventions. Side-lying facilitates access to the oral cavity while ensuring safety, making B the best choice for this vulnerable client.
Question 3
The nurse is assessing a newborn immediately after birth. After assigning the first Apgar score
of 9, the nurse notes two vessels in the umbilical cord. What is the nurse’s next action?
A. Assess for other abnormalities of the infant.
B. Note the assessment finding in the infant’s chart.
C. Notify the health care provider of the assessment finding.
D. Call for the neonatal resuscitation team to attend the infant immediately.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Assess for other abnormalities of the infant.
The correct answer is A. The nurse should assess for other abnormalities of the infant because the presence of two vessels in the umbilical cord (a condition known as a two-vessel cord) may be associated with other congenital anomalies. By assessing for other abnormalities, the nurse can identify any potential issues that may require immediate intervention or further evaluation. This proactive approach ensures the newborn's well-being and allows for timely management of any additional concerns.
Summary of other choices:
B: Noting the finding in the chart is important but does not address the immediate need to assess for other abnormalities.
C: Notifying the health care provider is important, but assessing for other abnormalities should be the nurse's initial priority.
D: Calling for the neonatal resuscitation team is not necessary based solely on the presence of a two-vessel cord; further assessment is needed before determining the need for resuscitation.
Question 4
Which action highlights Florence Nightingale’s role as an epidemiologist?
A. Dressing soldiers’ infected wounds
B. Connecting poor sanitation with negative health outcomes
C. Developing training schools for nurses and midwives
D. Changing linens and frequently bathing clients
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Connecting poor sanitation with negative health outcomes
The correct answer is B: Connecting poor sanitation with negative health outcomes. This highlights Florence Nightingale's role as an epidemiologist because she was one of the first to recognize the link between poor sanitation and disease spread. She conducted studies showing how improving sanitation could reduce infection rates, laying the foundation for modern epidemiology.
A: Dressing soldiers' infected wounds - While this was an important part of Nightingale's work as a nurse, it does not specifically highlight her role as an epidemiologist.
C: Developing training schools for nurses and midwives - Nightingale's contribution to nursing education is significant, but it does not directly relate to her role as an epidemiologist.
D: Changing linens and frequently bathing clients - These actions are important for infection control but do not specifically showcase Nightingale's role as an epidemiologist in identifying the root causes of disease outbreaks.
Question 5
Which of the following should the nurse consider when planning care for a client with antisocial personality disorder? Clients with antisocial personality disorder:
A. Demand constant attention
B. Tolerate frustration well
C. Have well-developed superegos
D. Are initially often charming
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Are initially often charming
The correct answer is D: Are initially often charming. This is because individuals with antisocial personality disorder often exhibit charm and charisma to manipulate others for personal gain. This behavior is known as "charm offensive" and can be used to deceive and exploit others. This initial charm can make it difficult for others to recognize their true motives and manipulative nature.
Incorrect options:
A: Demand constant attention - Individuals with antisocial personality disorder may appear self-centered and manipulative but not necessarily demand constant attention.
B: Tolerate frustration well - Clients with antisocial personality disorder often have difficulty managing frustration and may resort to aggressive or impulsive behavior.
C: Have well-developed superegos - Individuals with antisocial personality disorder typically lack empathy and have a weak or underdeveloped superego, leading to a disregard for social norms and the rights of others.
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Question 6
Lisa, a 35-year-old practicing attorney and marathon runner, presents to the clinic with a complaint of irregular menses. She tells the nurse, 'My husband and I want to start a family but it hasn't happened yet. We stopped using birth control 6 months ago. Should we be concerned?' What is the nurse's best response?
A. Relax and it will happen.
B. No, infertility is the failure to conceive after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.
C. Aging and extreme exercise regimens may impact fertility. You should address your concerns with your provider during today's visit.
D. Decreasing your exercise frequency and intensity will increase your chances of conceiving.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because it acknowledges the potential impact of aging and extreme exercise on fertility, prompting further evaluation by the healthcare provider. Lisa's age and intense exercise regimen are important factors to consider since they can affect her ability to conceive. By addressing her concerns during the visit, the nurse can gather more information, assess potential fertility issues, and provide appropriate guidance or referrals.
Choice A is incorrect because it dismisses Lisa's concerns without addressing potential underlying issues. Choice B is incorrect as it sets a timeline for infertility diagnosis that is generally accepted after 1 year of unprotected intercourse for women under 35 years old, but Lisa's age and lifestyle may warrant earlier evaluation. Choice D is incorrect as it oversimplifies the issue by suggesting only a change in exercise routine as a solution without considering other potential factors impacting fertility.
A nurse is caring for a patient who has been hospitalized with an acute asthma exacerbation. What drugs should the nurse expect to be ordered for this patient to gain underlying control of persistent asthma?
A. Rescue inhalers
B. Anti-inflammatory drugs
C. Antibiotics
D. Antitussives
Correct answer:
For an acute asthma exacerbation with persistent symptoms, the nurse expects anti-inflammatory drugs, primarily inhaled corticosteroids (e.g., budesonide), to gain underlying control. Asthma's root is airway inflammation corticosteroids reduce mucosal edema, mucus production, and hyperresponsiveness, preventing recurrent attacks and stabilizing lung function long-term. Rescue inhalers (e.g., albuterol) provide quick relief for acute bronchospasm but don't address inflammation, serving as short-term adjuncts. Antibiotics treat bacterial infections, irrelevant unless pneumonia complicates the case, which isn't typical in asthma. Antitussives suppress cough, counterproductive when cough clears mucus in asthma. The nurse anticipates corticosteroids often paired with beta-agonists per asthma guidelines (e.g., NHLBI), monitoring for delivery (e.g., MDI with spacer) and side effects (e.g., thrush), ensuring control of this chronic inflammatory state post-exacerbation.
The highest priority for assessment by nurses caring for older adults who self-administer medications is
A. use of multiple drugs with anticholinergic effects.
B. overuse of medications for erectile dysfunction.
C. missed doses of medications for arthritis.
D. trading medications with acquaintances.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: use of multiple drugs with anticholinergic effects. This is the highest priority because anticholinergic medications are commonly prescribed to older adults and can lead to serious adverse effects such as confusion, memory issues, and falls. Nurses must assess for these effects to prevent harm.
Choice B (overuse of medications for erectile dysfunction) is not as high a priority as anticholinergic effects, as it is not as common and typically has less immediate serious consequences for older adults.
Choice C (missed doses of medications for arthritis) is important but not as critical as assessing for anticholinergic effects, as missed doses can generally be managed through education and adherence support.
Choice D (trading medications with acquaintances) is a serious concern but is not as high a priority as assessing for anticholinergic effects, as the immediate risks associated with anticholinergic medications are more severe.
A 24-year-old travel agent comes to your clinic, complaining of pain and swelling in her vulvar area. She states that 2 days earlier she could feel a small tender spot on the left side of her vagina but now it is larger and extremely tender. Her last period was 1 year ago and she is sexually active. She uses the Depo-Provera shot for contraception. She denies any nausea, vomiting, constipation, diarrhea, pain with urination, or fever. Her past medical history is significant for ankle surgery. Her mother is healthy and her father has type 2 diabetes. On examination she appears her stated age and is standing up. She states she cannot sit down without excruciating pain. Her blood pressure, temperature, and pulse are unremarkable. On visualization of her perineum, a large, red, tense swelling is seen to the left of her introitus. Palpation of the mass causes a great deal of pain. What disorder of the vulva is most likely causing her problems?
A. Bartholin's gland infection
B. Vulvar carcinoma
C. Secondary syphilis
D. Condylomata acuminata
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Bartholin's gland infection. The patient's symptoms of pain, swelling, tenderness, and the presence of a red, tense swelling to the left of her introitus are classic signs of Bartholin's gland infection. The Bartholin's gland is located at the entrance to the vagina and can become infected, leading to the formation of a painful abscess. The patient's age, sexual activity, and use of contraception are all risk factors for developing this condition. The absence of systemic symptoms such as fever, along with the localized nature of the swelling, further support this diagnosis.
The other choices are incorrect because:
B: Vulvar carcinoma typically presents with different symptoms such as persistent itching, bleeding, or changes in the appearance of the skin.
C: Secondary syphilis would present with systemic symptoms like rash, fever, and lymphadenopathy, which are absent in this case.
D: Condylomata acuminata (genital warts) usually
A catatonic patient admitted in a stuporous condition begins to demonstrate increased motor activity. During his assessment, the psychiatrist raises the patient's arm above his head and releases it. The patient maintains the position his arm was placed in, immobile in that position for 15 minutes, moving only when the nurse gently lowers his arm. What symptom is demonstrated by this assessment technique?
A. Echopraxia
B. Waxy flexibility
C. Depersonalization
D. Thought withdrawal
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Waxy flexibility. This symptom is demonstrated by the patient's ability to maintain the position his arm was placed in, immobile, for an extended period of time. This is characteristic of catatonia, where individuals exhibit increased motor activity and abnormal posturing. Waxy flexibility refers to the tendency of catatonic patients to maintain positions that they are placed in by others, almost as if their limbs are made of wax and can be molded into different positions.
Explanation for other choices:
A: Echopraxia involves mimicking the movements of others, which is not demonstrated in this scenario.
C: Depersonalization refers to feeling detached from oneself, which is not evident in the patient's behavior during the assessment.
D: Thought withdrawal is a symptom of schizophrenia where thoughts are believed to be removed from one's mind by an external force, which is not relevant to the patient's motor behavior in this case.
When performing a physical exam on an infant, the nurse should:
A. Conduct the exam in a head-to-toe manner.
B. Begin with invasive procedures like ear examination.
C. Start with less distressing areas such as the abdomen.
D. Wait for the infant to wake up before starting the exam.
Correct answer:
Rationale for choice C: Starting with less distressing areas such as the abdomen is recommended when performing a physical exam on an infant. This approach helps build rapport and trust with the infant, allowing them to feel more comfortable during the exam. It also helps prevent unnecessary stress and agitation, leading to a smoother and more successful examination process. By starting with non-invasive areas, the nurse can gradually progress to more sensitive areas without causing undue distress to the infant.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
A: Conducting the exam in a head-to-toe manner may overwhelm the infant and increase stress levels.
B: Beginning with invasive procedures like ear examination can cause discomfort and lead to resistance from the infant.
D: Waiting for the infant to wake up before starting the exam is not practical as the nurse should take advantage of the infant's calm state during sleep to perform the exam efficiently.
A 36-year-old woman is beaten about the head and face and is brought to the local community hospital in full spinal immobilization. Her BP is 130/88, HR 70/min, and RR 18/min. Pulse oximetry indicated 98% while she was given 100% O2 via a non-rebreather mask. Her airway is clear. She has marked swellings on her face and several lacerations of her scalp that are not actively bleeding. She does not respond to verbal stimuli, but localizes to painful stimuli and opens her eyes. She moves all extremities equally. The remainder of her physical exam is normal. There is no neurosurgeon at the local hospital. After ensuring the patient's airway, the most appropriate course of action is to:
A. "Admit the patient to the hospital for observation"
B. Obtain x-ray of her facial bones prior to transfer
C. Obtain complete x-ray evaluation of the cervical spine
D. Transfer the patient to a neurosurgeon without performing a CT-scan
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Transfer the patient to a neurosurgeon without performing a CT-scan.
Rationale:
1. The patient has sustained significant head trauma with neurological symptoms.
2. The patient is not responding to verbal stimuli but localizes to painful stimuli, indicating altered mental status.
3. There is no neurosurgeon at the local hospital, suggesting the need for transfer to a facility with neurosurgical capabilities.
4. Performing a CT-scan may delay necessary intervention, and in this case, immediate neurosurgical evaluation is crucial.
Summary:
A: Admitting the patient for observation is not appropriate as she requires specialized care.
B: Obtaining x-ray of facial bones is not a priority in this scenario and does not address the potential neurological injury.
C: While a complete x-ray evaluation of the cervical spine is important, neurosurgical evaluation takes precedence in this case to assess for possible intracranial injuries.
Afamilywhosereligionlimitstheuseofsomeformsoftechnologyisadmittingtheirgrandfatherto youurunit.Theyexpressskepticismaboutthefactthatyouarerecordingtheadmissiondataonalaptop computer.Whatwouldbeyourbestresponsetotheirconcerns? N
A. Itsbeenfoundthatusingcomputersimprovesourpatientscareandreducestheirhealthcarecosts.
B. Wehavefoundthatitiseasiertokeeptrackofourpatientsinformationthiswayratherthanwith penandpaper.
C. Youll find that all the hospitals are doing this now, and that writing information with a pen is rar
Correct answer:
Step-by-step rationale for why answer B is correct:
1. Privacy and accuracy: Storing patient information on a computer allows for better organization and security compared to pen and paper.
2. Accessibility: Electronic records can be easily accessed and updated by authorized personnel.
3. Efficiency: Retrieving and sharing patient data is quicker and more efficient with digital records.
4. Compliance: Using electronic health records aligns with modern healthcare standards and regulations.
5. Patient care: By maintaining accurate and easily accessible records, healthcare providers can deliver better and more coordinated care.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
A: Focuses on patient care and cost reduction, not directly addressing the family's concerns about technology use.
C: Appeals to common practice and technology trends, but does not address the family's specific concerns about their beliefs.
D: Incomplete answer, no rationale provided.
A nurse in the oncology clinic is providing preoperative education to a client just diagnosed with cancer. The client has been scheduled for surgery in 3 days. What action by the nurse is best?
A. Call the client at home the next day to review teaching.
B. Give the client information about a cancer support group.
C. Provide all the preoperative instructions in writing.
D. Reassure the client that surgery will be over soon.
Correct answer:
A new cancer diagnosis combined with the urgency of surgery in three days can overwhelm a client, impairing their ability to process and retain preoperative instructions due to emotional stress and anxiety. Calling the client the next day to review teaching allows the nurse to reinforce key points, answer questions, and ensure comprehension when the client may be calmer and more receptive. While providing written instructions is helpful, it assumes literacy and may not address immediate confusion or emotional barriers. Offering support group information is valuable for long-term coping but doesn't prioritize the urgent need for surgical preparation. Reassuring the client that surgery will be over soon dismisses their concerns and doesn't enhance understanding. The follow-up call is the best action, as it aligns with adult learning principles and nursing's role in ensuring informed consent and readiness, reducing perioperative risks and anxiety for the client.
The nurse is teaching a nursing student about giving liquid medications. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A. A suspension is a mixture in which drug particles are dissolved in solution.
B. I will line up the bottom of the medication curve with the line in the syringe.
C. I will need to shake an elixir before measuring the dose.
D. I will not need to refrigerate liquids once they are reconstituted.
Correct answer:
Accurate measurement of liquid medications is essential for proper dosing, and the meniscus the curved surface of the liquid must be aligned correctly with the syringe's measurement line. Option B is correct because lining up the bottom of the meniscus with the desired mark ensures precision. Option A is incorrect as suspensions contain undissolved particles, not dissolved ones, distinguishing them from solutions. Option C is wrong because elixirs, typically clear solutions, don't require shaking unless specified, unlike suspensions, and shaking could introduce air, affecting accuracy. Option D is false as many reconstituted liquids require refrigeration to maintain stability, depending on the drug. The student's statement in B reflects a key principle of liquid medication administration, demonstrating an understanding of how to use a syringe effectively to avoid dosing errors, which is critical in nursing practice for patient safety and therapeutic outcomes.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 23 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
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